UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
Rights are fundamental entitlements that empower citizens to make legitimate claims against the State, ensuring protection of their freedoms and access to essential services. The State has a constitutional duty to respect, protect, and fulfill these rights, which serve as a safeguard against arbitrary state action.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Rights are not claims of the State against citizens; rather, the State has obligations to protect citizens' rights.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Rights are not mere privileges but fundamental entitlements guaranteed to all citizens, though many are incorporated in the Constitution.
✅ Option 3 – Correct: Rights represent legitimate claims that citizens can make against the State to ensure their freedoms and entitlements are protected and fulfilled.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Rights are universal entitlements for all citizens, not privileges limited to a few, embodying the principle of equality.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Indian federalism is not the result of an agreement among the federating units, unlike classical federations such as the United States or Switzerland. The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly and not through a compact or agreement among pre-existing sovereign states. The Indian federal structure was created by the Constitution itself, making it a union created by an act of the Constituent Assembly rather than by mutual agreement.
✅ Option 1 – Correct: India has an independent judiciary which acts as the guardian of the Constitution and arbiter in Centre-State disputes.
✅ Option 2 – Correct: The Constitution clearly divides powers between the Centre and States through the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
✅ Option 3 – Correct: States have unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha based on their population, unlike the equal representation typical of classical federations.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Indian federalism was not created by an agreement among federating units but was established by the Constituent Assembly through the Constitution.
In India, Judicial Review implies -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the Judiciary to examine and determine whether laws passed by the Legislature and actions taken by the Executive are in conformity with the Constitution. If any law or executive order is found to violate constitutional provisions, the courts can declare them invalid or unconstitutional. This power is derived from Articles 13, 32, 136, 142, and 226 of the Indian Constitution and forms a critical part of the system of checks and balances, ensuring the supremacy of the Constitution and protection of fundamental rights.
Why Option 1 is Correct:
Option 1 accurately defines Judicial Review as the judiciary's power to assess the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive actions, which is the core essence of this doctrine in India.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: The Judiciary cannot question the wisdom or policy behind laws; it can only examine their constitutional validity.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Judicial Review is not a pre-enactment scrutiny mechanism; courts review laws only after they are enacted and challenged.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: This describes the power of review or reconsideration of judgments, not Judicial Review in the constitutional sense.
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Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
The superior virtue of democracy lies in its ability to call into activity the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women, making them active participants rather than passive subjects in governance. Democracy is fundamentally built on the principle of citizen participation, where collective wisdom of informed and engaged people leads to better decision-making and promotes societal welfare. While strong leadership and dedicated party workers have their roles, the true strength of democracy rests in empowering the citizenry, ensuring that governance reflects the will, values, and character of the common people rather than an elite few.
Consider the following statements:
- The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
- The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Chief Secretary is appointed by the Governor, not the Chief Minister. Under Article 166 of the Constitution, all executive actions of the State Government are formally taken in the Governor's name. While the Chief Minister recommends the appointment, the formal appointing authority is the Governor. The Chief Secretary is the administrative head of the state civil services and is appointed from IAS officers serving in the state.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: There is no fixed tenure for the Chief Secretary. The position is held at the pleasure of the government, and the officer can be transferred or removed at any time before superannuation. The tenure depends on the discretion of the state government, and frequent changes in Chief Secretaries are common based on administrative and political considerations.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
- A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha does not lapse on prorogation. Prorogation is merely the end of a parliamentary session, not the dissolution of the House. All pending bills, motions, and other business remain intact and continue in the next session from where they were left.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body (never dissolved), so bills originating or pending there continue regardless of Lok Sabha dissolution. Only bills pending in the Lok Sabha itself lapse upon its dissolution.
With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
- The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008 grants both civil and criminal jurisdiction to Gram Nyayalayas. Under Section 12, they can hear and decide criminal cases triable by a Magistrate of the First Class. Under Section 13, they have civil jurisdiction over disputes specified in the Schedule to the Act. Therefore, the claim that they can hear only civil cases is wrong.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Section 27 of the Act mandates that the District Court, in consultation with the District Magistrate, shall prepare a panel of Conciliators. These are village-level social workers of integrity with prescribed qualifications and experience. Section 26 requires Gram Nyayalayas to make efforts for conciliation and settlement of civil disputes before formal adjudication, utilizing these local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Consider the following statements:
- The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
- A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The minimum age to be a member of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 25 years. Article 243F of the Constitution prescribes that a person must be at least 21 years old to be eligible for membership of a Panchayat.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: When a Panchayat is reconstituted after premature dissolution, it continues only for the remainder of the original term. Article 243E(4) clearly states that a Panchayat reconstituted after dissolution shall continue only for the unexpired period of the original term, not for a fresh five-year term.
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
Article 249 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring it necessary or expedient in the national interest. This resolution requires the support of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha. Once passed, Parliament gains the power to make laws on that subject for one year, which can be extended by passing another such resolution. This provision ensures that states' legislative domain is respected while allowing flexibility during national emergencies or matters of urgent national importance.
With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
- It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The 14th Finance Commission (chaired by Dr. Y.V. Reddy) increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32% to 42%, a historic jump aimed at enhancing fiscal federalism.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Commission moved away from recommending sector-specific grants to preserve state fiscal autonomy. It provided only grants for local bodies and disaster management, avoiding tied grants that restrict states' spending flexibility.
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
Detailed Explanation:
NITI Aayog was established on 1 January 2015 to replace the Planning Commission (established in 1950).
The shift was made to move from a centralized planning model to a more cooperative federalism approach, making policy-making more agile, responsive, and suited to India's economic reforms.
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by:
Detailed Explanation:
Article 108 of the Constitution provides that when a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses, it must be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting.
The joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, and the combined vote of both Houses determines the outcome, making it easier for the Lok Sabha to prevail due to its larger numerical strength.
Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
- The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
- The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given below are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The DPSP (Part IV, Articles 36-51) spell out the framework for socio-economic democracy, encompassing social justice, economic justice, and political justice that the State should strive to achieve.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 37 explicitly states that DPSPs are not enforceable by any court (non-justiciable), though they remain fundamental in governance and guide law-making and policy formulation.
Consider the following statements:
- The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
- The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Legislative Council cannot exceed one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly, as per Article 171(1). The minimum strength is 40 members.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council are elected by the Council members themselves, not nominated by the Governor, ensuring legislative independence from executive control.
Consider the following statements:
- The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The executive power of the Union is vested in the President of India under Article 53, not in the Prime Minister. The President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: There is no constitutional position called the Civil Services Board at the Union level, and the Prime Minister is not its ex officio Chairman. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the civil services.