UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
- There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
- A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the No-Confidence Motion; it is provided under Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: A No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha (not in Rajya Sabha) as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha under Article 75(3). Requires support of at least 50 members to be admitted.
Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
Detailed Explanation:
Committee on Estimates is the largest parliamentary committee with 30 members, all elected annually from the Lok Sabha only.
Committee on Public Accounts and Committee on Public Undertakings have 22 members each (15 from Lok Sabha + 7 from Rajya Sabha), while Committee on Petitions has 15 members in Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which -
- Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
- Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: A constitutional government protects individual liberty from state overreach, not restricts it in favour of state authority.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The essence of constitutional government is limited government where the authority of the state is restricted by the constitution to safeguard individual liberty and fundamental rights.
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Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:
- Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
- Scrutinizes the appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
- Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) consists of 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha), not 25. Members are elected annually by proportional representation using the single transferable vote.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: PAC scrutinizes the Appropriation Accounts and Finance Accounts of the Government to ensure public funds are spent legally and for intended purposes.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: PAC examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), who acts as the 'guide, philosopher, and friend' during PAC deliberations.
Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in:
Detailed Explanation:
Economic Justice is explicitly mentioned in the Preamble (securing social, economic and political justice to all citizens) and in Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 38 mandates a social order permeated by social, economic and political justice; Article 39 directs equitable distribution of resources and prevention of wealth concentration).
Fundamental Rights (Part III) primarily ensure political and civil justice (equality, freedoms, protection against discrimination) but do not explicitly mention economic justice as an objective.
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
Detailed Explanation:
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights.
The Gram Sabha receives claims, verifies them, prepares maps of claimed areas, and passes a resolution which is then screened by the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC) and finally approved by the District Level Committee (DLC).
According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 37 of the Constitution explicitly states that the provisions contained in Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) are "fundamental in the governance of the country".
Fundamental Rights are enforceable by courts and protect individual liberties, while Fundamental Duties are moral obligations for citizens—neither is described as "fundamental for governance" in the Constitution. Only DPSP carry this specific constitutional mandate.
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
Detailed Explanation:
Article 253 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India to implement international treaties, agreements, or conventions.
This power is exercised without requiring consent of any state, as it falls under Parliament's legislative competence to fulfill India's international obligations. This is one of the five extraordinary circumstances under which Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List.
Consider the following statements:
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Vice-President serves as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha (under Article 89) and is not a member of the House. However, the Deputy Chairman is elected from among the members of Rajya Sabha, making him/her a member of the House.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Electoral College for President (under Article 54) consists of only elected members of Parliament and State Legislatures, excluding nominated members. The Electoral College for Vice-President (under Article 66) includes all members of both Houses — both elected and nominated — giving nominated MPs voting rights in Vice-Presidential elections.
Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
- take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
- be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
- speak in the Lok Sabha
- vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 88 grants the Attorney General the right to take part in proceedings of either House of Parliament.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Attorney General can be named a member of any committee of Parliament and participate in its proceedings.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Attorney General has the right to speak in Lok Sabha under Article 88.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Attorney General has no right to vote in either House as explicitly stated in Article 88.
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
- The Prime Minister
- The Chairman, Finance Commission
- Ministers of the Union Cabinet
- Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the NDC and a core member.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Chairman, Finance Commission is not a member of the NDC; the Finance Commission is a separate constitutional body.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Ministers of the Union Cabinet are members of the NDC.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Chief Ministers of all States (and formerly UTs with legislatures) are members of the NDC.
Therefore, 1, 3 and 4 only constitute the National Development Council.
Consider the following statements:
- The Council of Ministers at the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
- The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
- The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 75(3) states the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only, not to the entire Parliament (which includes Rajya Sabha).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 75(2) provides that Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, though they are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 78(a) mandates the Prime Minister shall communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration and proposals for legislation to the President.
The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
Detailed Explanation:
PESA Act, 1996 aims to extend Panchayati Raj institutions to Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, ensuring self-governance, recognizing traditional rights over natural resources, and protecting tribal communities from exploitation.
It does NOT create autonomous regions – that function is served by the Sixth Schedule (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)), which provides for autonomous district councils in certain tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Consider the following statements:
- National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
- The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The National Development Council (NDC) was an independent advisory body established in 1952, not an organ of the Planning Commission. It was headed by the Prime Minister and included Chief Ministers and Union Cabinet Ministers.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Economic and Social Planning is placed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule, enabling both Union and State governments to legislate on the subject.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 243G of the Constitution mandates that Panchayats shall be assigned the task of preparing plans for economic development and social justice, promoting decentralized planning at the grassroots level.
In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
- Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament.
- Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
- Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 75(5) mandates that a Minister must be a member of Parliament within 6 months of appointment, establishing the institutional link between legislature and executive in parliamentary government.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Collective responsibility under Article 75(3) ensures the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha; Ministers hold office only till they enjoy confidence of Parliament, resignable on no-confidence motion.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Cabinet is headed by the Prime Minister (head of government), not the President (head of state); the President exercises powers on the aid and advice of Council of Ministers under Article 74.