UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
- The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
- No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
- All the disbursements made from Public Account also need Authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Department of Economic Affairs (under Ministry of Finance), not the Department of Revenue, prepares the Union Budget presented to Parliament.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 114 of the Constitution mandates that no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without parliamentary authorization through the Appropriation Act.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Public Account transactions (provident funds, judicial deposits, remittances) are operated by executive action and do not require parliamentary appropriation, functioning like banking transactions.
The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
- People’s participation in the development
- Political accountability
- Democratic decentralization
- Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: People's participation in development is a fundamental objective of the Panchayati Raj system, enabling grassroots involvement in local planning and development as envisaged in Article 40 and operationalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While political accountability emerges as a consequence, it is not among the fundamental objectives; the primary aim is to create institutions for self-governance, not to establish accountability mechanisms per se.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Democratic decentralization is the core principle of Panchayati Raj, transferring power from centralized structures to local self-government institutions to ensure governance at the grassroots level.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Financial mobilization is an operational aspect and a means to achieve development goals, but not a fundamental object of the system; the focus is on democratic participation and decentralization.
Consider the following statements:
- The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 109, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill; it can only return it with recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on Demands for Grants as per Article 113; this is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) under Article 112, though it cannot vote on the demands for grants.
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Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India is the Custodian of the Constitution, safeguarding Fundamental Rights under Article 32, exercising Judicial Review under Article 13, and ensuring all laws conform to constitutional provisions.
The Court settles Centre-State disputes (Article 131), declares binding law (Article 141), enforces decrees (Article 142), and advises the President (Article 143), making it the ultimate guardian of constitutional supremacy.
The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to -
Detailed Explanation:
Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule both provide special provisions for the administration and protection of Scheduled Tribes in India.
Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states (except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram) and provides for Tribes Advisory Councils (TACs) to advise Governors on tribal welfare, land rights, and customary practices.
Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram and creates Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with legislative and administrative powers to preserve tribal customs, land ownership, and self-governance.
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because:
Detailed Explanation:
Parliamentary System is characterized by the fusion of executive and legislature, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is drawn from and remains collectively responsible to the legislature.
Article 75(3) mandates that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha — meaning the government must maintain the confidence of the lower house to remain in power. This accountability to the legislature is the defining feature that distinguishes a Parliamentary system from a Presidential system (where the executive is independent of legislative confidence).
Direct election of Lok Sabha, power to amend Constitution, and permanent nature of Rajya Sabha are features found in various democratic systems and do not define the Parliamentary character of government.
The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
Detailed Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36-51) embody the ideal of a Welfare State by laying down socio-economic goals for the government to achieve, such as securing social order for public welfare (Article 38), ensuring adequate means of livelihood (Article 39), and promoting public health and nutrition (Article 47).
While the Preamble declares India as a socialist republic and Fundamental Rights protect individual freedoms, it is the DPSP that specifically provides the comprehensive framework and guidelines for establishing a welfare state through positive state action.
“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the:
Detailed Explanation:
The provision "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is enshrined in Article 51A(c) of the Constitution.
This is one of the 11 Fundamental Duties added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
- Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
- Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Cabinet Secretariat prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings and circulates relevant papers to ensure smooth functioning of the Cabinet.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: It provides secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees (like CCEA, CCS, ACC) and coordinates implementation of Cabinet decisions across ministries.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Allocation of financial resources is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance through the Budget Division, not the Cabinet Secretariat.
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
Detailed Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution contains provisions regarding anti-defection.
Added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, it provides for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection by voluntarily giving up party membership or disobeying party whip (except in cases like splits and mergers as per rules).
The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
Detailed Explanation:
Article 124(1) of the Constitution states that the Supreme Court shall consist of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, not more than 33 other Judges.
The power to increase the number of Supreme Court judges is vested in Parliament through legislation, not in the President, Chief Justice, or Law Commission.
In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
Detailed Explanation:
Promotion of international peace and security is mandated under Article 51 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
The State shall endeavour to: promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
Which of the following are discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
- Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President's rule
- Appointing the Ministers
- Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
- Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 356, the Governor has discretionary power to send a report to the President recommending President's Rule if constitutional machinery in the state has failed.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Governor appoints Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister under Article 164; this is not a discretionary power but a constitutional obligation.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Under Article 200, the Governor has discretionary power to reserve bills passed by the State Legislature for the President's consideration, especially bills affecting High Court powers or repugnant to Central laws.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Under Article 166, rules for conducting State Government business are made by the Governor on the advice of the Council of Ministers, not at discretion.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
Detailed Explanation:
Article 131 confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court to decide disputes between the Centre and States or between States inter se.
Original jurisdiction means cases can be directly filed in the Supreme Court without going through lower courts, making it the court of first instance for such federal disputes.
Consider the following statements:
- The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
- All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 77(3) empowers the President to make rules for transaction of Government business and allocation among Ministers. These are known as the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 77(1) states all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers but executive authority is formally vested in the President.