UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Directive Principles of State Policy directly address education through Article 21A (Right to Education), Article 41 (education in certain cases), and Article 45 (Early Childhood Care and Education for children below 6 years).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats) and Twelfth Schedule (Municipalities) empower Rural and Urban Local Bodies to manage primary education, secondary education, and technical training institutions.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Fifth Schedule (Para 4) mandates promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas through State Governors' reports.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Sixth Schedule (Para 3) grants Autonomous District Councils powers to establish, construct, and manage primary schools, dispensaries, and markets in tribal areas of Northeast India.
✅ Statement 5 – Correct: Seventh Schedule - Concurrent List (Entry 25) places education under joint jurisdiction of Parliament and State Legislatures, enabling both to legislate on educational matters.
All five provisions have constitutional bearing on education.
A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of:
- Ordinary Legislation
- Money Bill
- Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 108 provides for a joint sitting to resolve deadlocks on Ordinary Bills if a bill is rejected by the other House, amendments are not agreed upon, or more than six months elapse without passage.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Money Bills (Article 110) cannot have a joint sitting. The Lok Sabha has overriding powers; the Rajya Sabha can only recommend within 14 days, after which the bill is deemed passed.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Constitution Amendment Bills (Article 368) require passage by special majority in each House separately. No provision exists for a joint sitting in case of disagreement.
In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is:
Detailed Explanation:
Adjournment Motion is an extraordinary parliamentary device used in the Lok Sabha only (not in Rajya Sabha) to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance. It interrupts the normal business of the House and is considered a tool of censure against the government, requiring support of at least 50 members for admission.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Question Hour and other devices are used for collecting information from ministers, not adjournment motion.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: This describes Cut Motion, which is used to reduce specific amounts in demand for grants during Budget discussion.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: This describes Adjournment of the House, a power exercised by the Presiding Officer to suspend sitting due to disorder or lack of quorum, not a motion moved by members.
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In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for the intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
- CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
- CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
- Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
- While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: CAG does not exercise exchequer control during national/financial emergency; it performs audit functions independently under Article 148-151, not executive control over funds.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: CAG reports on execution of projects/programmes are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), which scrutinizes government expenditure based on these audit findings.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Information from CAG audit reports can be used by investigating agencies (CBI, ED) as evidence to initiate action against those who misused public funds or violated financial laws.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: CAG has no judicial powers to prosecute; it is an audit body that reports irregularities but cannot conduct prosecutions or impose penalties.
In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
- Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
- Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
- Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Section 4(m)(iii) of the PESA Act, 1996 empowers the Gram Sabha or Panchayat at appropriate level to prevent alienation of land in Scheduled Areas and restore unlawfully alienated land of Scheduled Tribes.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Section 4(m)(ii) of the PESA Act grants ownership of minor forest produce to the Gram Sabha or Panchayats at the appropriate level.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Section 4(k) of the Act mandates recommendation of Gram Sabha or Panchayats only for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals, not for all minerals in Scheduled Areas.
Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
- A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
- A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
- Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Thirteenth Finance Commission (2010-2015) recommended a detailed roadmap for GST implementation including design features and a compensation mechanism for states transitioning to the new tax regime.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Job creation falls outside the mandate of Finance Commissions, which are constitutionally tasked with recommending tax devolution and grants-in-aid, not employment generation policies.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Commission recommended grants to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) as a specified share of central taxes, amounting to ₹87,519 crore for the 2010-15 period.
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
- Right to a healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
- Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275( 1)
- Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted to provide effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests, which is in consonance with Article 21 (Right to Life). The Supreme Court has interpreted the Right to a healthy environment as an integral part of Article 21 in landmark cases like M.C. Mehta v. Union of India.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 275(1) deals with grants-in-aid from the Union to states, particularly for Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes welfare. The NGT Act has no connection with tribal welfare administration or grants under this provision.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Article 243(A) defines the Gram Sabha and its composition in the context of Panchayati Raj institutions. The NGT Act is a specialized environmental adjudicatory body and has no relation to Gram Sabha powers or local self-governance functions.
Consider the following statements:
- Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
- It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
- According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 80 provides that Union Territories are represented in Rajya Sabha. Currently, Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir send representatives to Rajya Sabha.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Election disputes are adjudicated by High Courts under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not by the Chief Election Commissioner. The Election Commission conducts elections but does not have judicial powers.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Article 79 states that Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. The President is an integral part of Parliament as no bill becomes law without Presidential assent.
Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
- Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
- Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
- Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
- A periodic or at least a mid-year review of the programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
- Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 112 mandates placing the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) before Parliament, enabling financial scrutiny and control.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 114 requires Appropriation Bill passage before any withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring Parliamentary authorization.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Supplementary grants (Article 115) and vote-on-account (Article 116) provide mechanisms for Parliament to control additional or interim expenditure.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: India does not have a Parliamentary Budget Office for mid-year macroeconomic reviews; such institutional mechanisms are absent.
✅ Statement 5 – Correct: Finance Bill (Article 110) introduction in Parliament is mandatory for taxation proposals, enabling control over revenue measures.