UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The 7th Constitutional Amendment (1956) permits the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States simultaneously.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Judges of High Courts are appointed by the President of India (after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, Governor, and Chief Justice of the concerned High Court), not by the Governor.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Constitution does not prescribe any specific procedure for removal of a Governor; Article 156 states that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: In Union Territories with legislative assemblies (Delhi, Puducherry), the Chief Minister is appointed by the President, not the Lieutenant Governor.
Consider the following statements
- An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: A constitutional amendment bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not just Lok Sabha.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Amendments affecting the federal character require ratification by legislatures of at least half of the states, not all states.
What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 109 of the Constitution governs the procedure for Money Bills in Parliament.
When the Rajya Sabha receives a Money Bill, it can only recommend amendments within 14 days but has no power to reject or substantially amend it.
The Lok Sabha has absolute discretion to accept or reject any recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha.
If the Lok Sabha rejects the recommendations, the Bill is deemed passed in its original form by both Houses.
There is no provision for joint sitting or sending the Bill back for reconsideration in case of Money Bills.
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Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
- National Development Council
- Planning Commission
- Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The National Development Council (NDC) was established in August 1952 by an executive resolution and is not mentioned in the Constitution.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Planning Commission was set up in March 1950 through an executive resolution; it was a non-constitutional, non-statutory body (replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015).
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 and are not mentioned in the Constitution.
With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
- Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: NALSA's primary objective is to provide free and competent legal services to weaker sections including women, children, SC/ST, and persons with disabilities on the basis of equal opportunity as mandated by Article 39A of the Constitution.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: NALSA is the apex body that issues guidelines, principles, and policies for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and schemes uniformly throughout the country under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
- He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
- He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
- If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Speaker does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. He/she is elected by the Lok Sabha and can be removed only by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members of the House. The Speaker continues in office even after dissolution of the Lok Sabha until immediately before the first meeting of the new House.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Under Article 93, the Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of election. The six-month membership rule applies to Ministers (Article 75), not to the Speaker or Deputy Speaker.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: As per Article 94(b), the Speaker resigns by writing under his/her hand addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Similarly, the Deputy Speaker's resignation is addressed to the Speaker.
Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
- A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
- A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or Legislature of a State
- A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
- A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 131 grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court over disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Election disputes regarding Parliament or State Legislature are handled by High Courts and Election Tribunals, not under Supreme Court's original jurisdiction.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Union Territories are not included in Article 131; original jurisdiction covers only disputes involving States.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 131 provides original jurisdiction for disputes between two or more States.
Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Option 2 – Correct: Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority of members present and voting) enabling Parliament to legislate on State List subjects in national interest. Article 312 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority) authorizing Parliament to create All India Services.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Article 3 grants power to Parliament (both Houses) to alter boundaries/names of states, not an exclusive power of Rajya Sabha.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Presidential election procedure amendment requires Constitutional Amendment (Article 368) by both Houses; President's pension is determined by Parliament (both Houses) under Article 59(3).
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Article 324(2) empowers the President (not Rajya Sabha) to determine the number of Election Commissioners; their conditions of service are regulated by Parliament (both Houses).
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :
- Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
- Organizing village Panchayats
- Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
- Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code) is a Liberal-Intellectual principle, not a Gandhian principle.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 40 (organizing village panchayats) is a Gandhian principle reflecting Gandhi's vision of self-governance at the village level.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 43 (promoting cottage industries in rural areas) is a Gandhian principle emphasizing rural economic self-reliance.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Article 43 (securing leisure and cultural opportunities for workers) is a Socialist principle, not a Gandhian principle.
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
Detailed Explanation:
Article 75(5) of the Constitution states that a minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament for six consecutive months ceases to be a minister at the expiration of that period.
Since the Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers, this provision applies—meaning the PM need not be a member at appointment but must become a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha within six months, failing which he/she ceases to hold office.
The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the -
Detailed Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced the three-tier division of powers into Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List, which directly inspired the current Union List, State List, and Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution (Seventh Schedule).
This federal structure with detailed distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States was a novel feature borrowed from the 1935 Act, making it the blueprint for India's federal governance framework.
With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
- The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
- When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 329(a) of the Constitution and the Delimitation Commission Act, the orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in any court of law. They have the force of law and are final to prevent judicial delays in the electoral process.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: When the orders are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, these bodies cannot modify them. The orders are placed for information only, ensuring the independence and finality of the delimitation process, free from political interference.
What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
- While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
- The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
- The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
- All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 124(2) mandates that the President must consult the Chief Justice of India (CJI) while appointing Supreme Court Judges, ensuring judicial say in appointments.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Supreme Court Judges can only be removed by the President through impeachment after an address by Parliament with special majority (majority of total membership + two-thirds of present and voting), not by the CJI.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 146(3) provides that salaries and allowances of Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, requiring no legislative vote, ensuring financial independence from Parliament.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Article 146(2) states that appointments of officers and staff are made by the CJI or officers appointed by the CJI, not by the Government.
Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
- To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
- To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
- To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
- To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 51A(f) mandates preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture as a Fundamental Duty.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Protecting weaker sections from social injustice is a Directive Principle under Article 46, not a Fundamental Duty.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 51A(h) requires developing scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 51A(j) mandates striving towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
- The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
- The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
- The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
- The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 281 mandates the President to lay the Finance Commission's recommendations before Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a Parliamentary Committee that examines CAG reports and presents its own report to Parliament; the President does not lay PAC reports.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 151 requires the President to cause the CAG's reports relating to Union accounts to be laid before each House of Parliament.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 338(5) requires the President to lay the annual report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes before Parliament with an action taken memorandum.