UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
| Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance |
| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
Detailed Explanation:
Row 1 — Incorrect. CEIB functions under Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue) — NOT Ministry of Home Affairs. It is the nodal agency for economic intelligence coordination.
Row 2 — Incorrect. SFIO functions under Ministry of Corporate Affairs — NOT Ministry of Finance. It investigates serious and complex corporate frauds (white-collar crimes).
Row 3 — Correct. CBI — mandate to preserve values in public life and ensure health of national economy — correctly placed under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (DoPT).
Correct Reference Table:
| Organisation | Function | Correct Ministry |
|---|---|---|
| CEIB | Economic intelligence coordination | Ministry of Finance (Dept. of Revenue) |
| SFIO | Corporate fraud investigation | Ministry of Corporate Affairs |
| CBI | Corruption, economic offences, special crimes | Ministry of Personnel, PG & Pensions (DoPT) ✅ |
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
- Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
- The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) governs Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram — NOT the Fifth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in all other states.
Statement 2 — Correct. Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, Scheduled Tribe members residing in specified regions are exempt from income tax on income generated within those areas:
- Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Ladakh
- Also covers dividends and interest on securities
Statement 3 — Correct. Article 243D mandates reservation of seats in Panchayats for SCs and STs. Further, Article 243D(2) explicitly requires that not less than one-third of seats reserved for SCs and STs must be reserved for women belonging to SCs/STs.
Key Trick: Statement 1 is a classic Fifth vs Sixth Schedule swap — one of the most frequently tested UPSC traps in Polity.
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :
- Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
- Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
- No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. Unstarred questions require a written answer — NOT oral. The written reply is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the concerned Minister.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. Starred questions (marked with *) require an oral answer on the floor of the House — NOT written.
Statement 3 — Correct. Since unstarred questions are answered in writing, no supplementary (follow-up) questions can be asked on them. Supplementary questions can only be asked after oral replies to:
- Starred questions
- Short Notice Questions
Quick Reference Table:
| Type | Answer Mode | Supplementary Allowed? |
|---|---|---|
| ⭐ Starred Question | Oral on floor of House | ✅ Yes |
| Unstarred Question | Written (laid on Table) | ❌ No |
| Short Notice Question | Oral | ✅ Yes |
Key Trick: Statements 1 and 2 are exact swaps of each other — a classic UPSC reversal trap.
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Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
- Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
- No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
- Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha — NOT the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. The composition is reversed:
- 20 members → elected by Lok Sabha
- 10 members → elected by Rajya Sabha
Statement 3 — Incorrect. No Minister is eligible to be a member — there is absolutely no exception, not even for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment. If a member is appointed Minister after election, they immediately cease to be a member.
Statement 4 — Incorrect. The term does not exceed one year — NOT two years. It is reconstituted annually, like other major standing committees (PAC, Estimates Committee).
All Four Statements are Wrong — Quick Reference:
| Statement | Claimed | Correct |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Chairperson by RS Chairman | By Lok Sabha Speaker |
| 2 | 20 RS + 10 LS | 20 LS + 10 RS |
| 3 | Minister of SJ&E exempt | No minister exempt |
| 4 | 2-year term | 1-year term |
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
- A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
- The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
- Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Correct. Under Section 173(1) of BNSS, 2023, a Zero FIR can be lodged at any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction for cognizable offences. The receiving station must forward it to the jurisdictionally competent station after registration.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. While Section 173(3) of BNSS allows for a preliminary enquiry, it is not specifically tied to Zero FIR registration. It applies to cognizable offences punishable by 3 to 7 years of imprisonment and requires prior permission of a competent authority — the statement incorrectly links it exclusively to Zero FIR.
Statement 3 — Incorrect. Electronic submission of information is not mandatory. Section 173(1) allows information to be given either orally OR by electronic communication — it is an option, not an obligation.
Key Distinctions:
| Aspect | Correct Position |
|---|---|
| Jurisdiction | Any police station — Zero FIR covers cognizable offences |
| Preliminary enquiry | Not exclusive to Zero FIR; requires specific conditions |
| Mode of information | Oral OR electronic — not mandatory to be electronic |
X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Key Provision — Article 13(3)(a): The definition of "law" under Article 13 is highly expansive and explicitly includes:
- Ordinances
- Orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications
- Custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law
Analysis:
| Person | View | Correctness |
|---|---|---|
| X | Law includes ordinances, orders, rules & regulations — but doubted inclusion of custom | ❌ Partially wrong — correct on formal instruments, wrong to exclude custom |
| Y | Law also includes custom or usage having the force of law | ✅ Completely correct |
Why this matters: Uncodified traditional practices that hold the force of law are subject to the same constitutional scrutiny as formal legislative statutes. This prevents the State from bypassing Fundamental Rights through traditional or executive means.
Key Principle: Article 13 is a protective provision — its broad definition of "law" ensures no instrument (formal or customary) can override Fundamental Rights.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. Article 393 explicitly gives the Constitution its short title, stating: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India."
Statement 2 — Incorrect. Article 395 explicitly repeals colonial-era legislation — specifically the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 (along with all amending/supplementing enactments, except the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949).
Statement 3 — Incorrect. Article 394 explicitly mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of commencement, stating that remaining provisions "shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which day is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution."
All three statements are factually wrong — each claims an Article does NOT exist, when in fact Articles 393, 394, and 395 directly address each claim.
Key Articles to Remember:
| Article | Content |
|---|---|
| 393 | Short title — "Constitution of India" |
| 394 | Commencement — 26th January 1950 |
| 395 | Repeal of Indian Independence Act 1947 & GoI Act 1935 |
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
- The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
- The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
- The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Revamped RGSA was approved for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period) — NOT from 1st April 2021.
Statement 2 — Correct. The primary objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to effectively deliver on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through localisation of SDGs at the grassroots level via inclusive local governance.
Statement 3 — Incorrect. RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme — NOT 100% centrally funded for all States/UTs. The funding pattern is:
| Category | Centre : State |
|---|---|
| General Category States | 60 : 40 |
| NE States, Hilly States, J&K (UT) | 90 : 10 |
| Other UTs & Central Components | 100% Central |
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement I is Incorrect: Declaration of a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule does not remove the State Government's executive powers. Administration remains with the State Government, while special safeguards are provided for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect: The Fifth Schedule does not authorize the Union Government to take over the total administration of Scheduled Areas. The Union can issue directions to the State regarding their administration, but a complete takeover is not provided under the Schedule.
Therefore, both statements are incorrect.
📝 Short Notes: Fifth Schedule
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Applies To | Scheduled Areas in States (except Sixth Schedule areas) |
| Objective | Protection of tribal interests |
| Governor's Role | Can make regulations for peace and good governance |
| Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) | Advises on tribal welfare matters |
| Union's Role | Can issue directions to States |
| Administration | Remains with the State Government |
Key Fact:
The Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes, while the Sixth Schedule provides autonomous councils in certain tribal areas of the Northeast.
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement I is Correct: An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it can amend, repeal, or modify any Central Act, subject to constitutional limits.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect: An Ordinance cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights. Article 13(2) prohibits the State from making any law that violates Fundamental Rights.
✅ Statement III is Correct: An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect (back date), just like a law passed by Parliament.
Therefore, Statements I and III are correct.
📝 Short Notes: Ordinance
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Provision | Article 123 (President), Article 213 (Governor) |
| When Issued | When Legislature is not in session |
| Force | Same as an Act of Legislature |
| Approval | Must be approved within 6 weeks of reassembly |
| Limitation | Cannot violate Fundamental Rights |
| Retrospective Effect | Allowed |
Key Fact:
The Supreme Court has held that Ordinance-making power is a legislative power, but it is subject to judicial review.
Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement I is Correct
-
The Constitution explicitly provides situations where the Governor can act in his/her discretion.
-
Article 163(2) states that if any question arises regarding the Governor's discretionary powers, the Governor's decision shall be final.
-
Examples include reserving certain bills for the President and decisions in specific political situations.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect
-
The President cannot directly reserve a State Bill for consideration.
-
A State Bill reaches the President only when the Governor reserves it under Article 200.
-
Therefore, the President cannot act suo motu (on his/her own) in this matter.
Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
📝 Short Notes: Governor's Discretionary Powers
| Provision | Details |
|---|---|
| Article 163 | Governor can act in discretion in specified matters |
| Article 200 | Governor may reserve a State Bill for President |
| Hung Assembly | Governor may exercise discretion in inviting a CM |
| President's Role | Acts only after bill is reserved by Governor |
Key Fact:
Unlike the President, whose discretionary powers are very limited, the Governor enjoys certain constitutional discretionary powers, especially in Centre-State relations.
With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
Among the given bodies, only the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body.
✅ Statement I: Inter-State Council — Correct
-
Established under Article 263 of the Constitution.
-
It promotes coordination and cooperation between the Centre and States.
❌ Statement II: National Security Council — Incorrect
-
Established in 1998 through an Executive Order.
-
It is not mentioned in the Constitution.
❌ Statement III: Zonal Councils — Incorrect
-
Created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
-
They are statutory bodies, not constitutional bodies.
Therefore, only one body was established as per the provisions of the Constitution.
Consider the following pairs:
Provision in the Constitution of India – Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
All three pairs are correctly matched.
-
Article 50 (DPSP) directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive.
-
Article 51A(f) (Fundamental Duties) asks citizens to value and preserve India's composite cultural heritage.
-
Article 24 (Fundamental Rights) prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, and hazardous occupations.
Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Detailed Explanation:
All three statements are incorrect.
-
Intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in states with a population below 20 lakh.
-
Minimum age to become a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 30 years.
-
The Governor, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the State Finance Commission.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayats. It provides for a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, regular elections, reservation, and State Finance Commissions for financial review.
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The President's pardoning power (Article 72) is not absolute. The Supreme Court can review its exercise in limited situations such as mala fide intent, arbitrariness, or consideration of irrelevant facts.
However, the President cannot exercise this power independently. Under Article 74, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
Why the statements are correct/incorrect:
| Statement | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| I | ✅ Correct | Pardoning power is subject to limited judicial review. |
| II | ❌ Incorrect | President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers. |
📝 Short Notes: Pardoning Power of the President
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Provision | Article 72 |
| Authority | President of India |
| Acts On | Aid and advice of Council of Ministers |
| Judicial Review | Allowed in limited cases |
| Types of Clemency | Pardon, Reprieve, Respite, Remission, Commutation |
Key Fact:
The President can grant pardon in cases involving court-martial, Union laws, and death sentences.