UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)

Detailed Explanation:

Both statements are incorrect. Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the decision on disqualification of MPs is made by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha), not by the President.

Also, the term "political party" is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which deals with defection and party membership.

Why the statements are wrong:

📝 Short Notes: Anti-Defection Law

Key Fact:
The Anti-Defection Law was introduced to curb political instability caused by frequent party switching by elected representatives.

Detailed Explanation:

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for an anti-corruption ombudsman at the national level. The Lokpal can investigate corruption allegations against public servants, including certain cases involving the Prime Minister.

Only Statement III is correct because a person must be at least 45 years old to become the Chairperson or a Member of the Lokpal.

Why other statements are wrong:

📝 Short Notes: Lokpal

Key Fact:
The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and up to eight Members, with at least 50% of the Members being from SC, ST, OBC, minorities, or women.

Detailed Explanation:

Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), State Governments have the power to make rules regarding the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, and other concessions for minor minerals.

However, the Central Government has the authority to notify which minerals will be classified as minor minerals under the Act.

Why the statements are correct/incorrect:

📝 Short Notes: Minor Minerals under MMDR Act

Key Fact:
Minor minerals are regulated mainly by State Governments, but their classification as "minor minerals" is decided by the Central Government.

Detailed Explanation:

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha continues in office even after the House is dissolved and remains in position until just before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha. Also, the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of the House after giving 14 days' notice.

However, the Constitution does not require a Speaker to resign from his/her political party upon election. Political neutrality is expected as a convention, not a constitutional requirement.

Why other statements are wrong:

📝 Short Notes: Speaker of Lok Sabha

Key Fact:
The Speaker is expected to act impartially, but unlike in some countries, the Indian Constitution does not require the Speaker to give up party membership.

Detailed Explanation:

❌ Row 1 is Incorrect: The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

✅ Row 2 is Correct: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

❌ Row 3 is Incorrect: The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (DGSDM) mainly manages and maintains IT systems of CBIC. Big data analytics and risk assessment to detect tax evasion are performed by DGARM (Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management).

Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.

Why other rows are incorrect:

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 2 (Only two)

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) regulates mainly the downstream petroleum and natural gas sector. It does not regulate upstream activities such as exploration and production of crude oil and natural gas.

❌ Activity I: Production of crude oil – Not Regulated by PNGRB

Production of crude oil is an upstream activity regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas and the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons.

✅ Activity II: Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum products – Regulated

PNGRB regulates aspects of storage, transportation, distribution, and common carrier access in the downstream sector.

✅ Activity III: Marketing and sale of petroleum products – Regulated

PNGRB authorizes entities for marketing notified petroleum products and natural gas and promotes fair competition.

❌ Activity IV: Production of natural gas – Not Regulated by PNGRB

Like crude oil production, natural gas production is an upstream activity and falls outside PNGRB's regulatory jurisdiction.

Therefore, only II and III fall under PNGRB regulation.

Short Notes: Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)

• PNGRB was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006.

• It regulates the downstream petroleum and natural gas sector.

• It ensures fair competition in petroleum and natural gas markets.

• It regulates pipelines, city gas distribution networks, storage, and transportation.

• It does not regulate exploration or production of crude oil and natural gas.

• Upstream activities are overseen by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) and the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.

• PNGRB helps protect consumer interests and promotes investment in energy infrastructure.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (I, III and IV)

The Fifteenth Finance Commission recommended several performance-based grants and incentives to improve governance, education, agriculture, and fiscal discipline among States.

✅ Statement I is Correct: The Commission recommended ₹4,800 crore during 2022–23 to 2025–26 to incentivize States for improving educational outcomes.

❌ Statement II is Incorrect: The Commission recommended that 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes be devolved to States, not 45%.

✅ Statement III is Correct: A ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive fund was proposed to encourage States to undertake agricultural reforms.

✅ Statement IV is Correct: The Commission reintroduced the Tax Effort Criterion to reward States that mobilize their own tax revenues more effectively relative to their economic capacity.

Short Notes: Fifteenth Finance Commission

• The 15th Finance Commission was chaired by N. K. Singh.

• Its recommendations covered the period 2021–26.

• It recommended 41% tax devolution to States.

• Introduced performance-based incentives in sectors like education, agriculture, and power reforms.

• Recommended ₹45,000 crore for agricultural reform-linked incentives.

• Reintroduced the Tax Effort criterion in the devolution formula.

• Finance Commissions are constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (None)

This question tests knowledge of the ministries under which various statutory and autonomous bodies function. All three pairs are incorrectly matched.

❌ Pair I is Incorrect: National Automotive Board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

❌ Pair II is Incorrect: Coir Board functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

❌ Pair III is Incorrect: National Centre for Trade Information is associated with the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of MSME.

Short Notes: Important Boards and Organizations

• National Automotive Board (NAB) functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

• NAB supports implementation of India's automotive policies and initiatives.

• Coir Board was established under the Coir Industry Act, 1953.

• Coir Board operates under the Ministry of MSME.

• The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) is linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• NCTI facilitates access to trade-related information and export promotion.

• UPSC frequently asks questions on organizations and their parent ministries.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (All the three)

All three pairs are correctly matched. The question combines facts related to the capitals, national parks, and constitutional history of northeastern states.

✅ Pair I is Correct: Arunachal Pradesh's capital Itanagar is named after the historic Ita Fort, and the state has two National Parks—Namdapha and Mouling.

✅ Pair II is Correct: Nagaland became a state on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, following constitutional provisions for its creation.

✅ Pair III is Correct: Tripura was a Part 'C' State, became a Union Territory in 1956, and attained full statehood on 21 January 1972.

Short Notes: North-Eastern States – Formation and Features

• Arunachal Pradesh became a full-fledged state in 1987.

• Ita Fort is a historical fort from which Itanagar derives its name.

• Namdapha National Park is one of India's largest protected areas.

• Nagaland became the 16th state of India in 1963.

• Tripura was a princely state before merging with India in 1949.

• Tripura and Manipur became full-fledged states in 1972.

• The North-East is often called the "Seven Sisters" region.

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement I is Correct: Under Article 361(1), the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office.

✅ Statement II is Correct: As per Article 361(2), no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against a Governor during the term of office.

✅ Statement III is Correct: Under Article 194(2), Members of a State Legislature enjoy freedom of speech in the House and cannot be taken to court for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

📝 Short Notes: Constitutional Immunities & Privileges

Key Fact:

The immunity under Article 361 is temporary. Criminal proceedings can be initiated after the Governor demits office.

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement I is Correct: Any amendment affecting the Union List (Seventh Schedule) changes the distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States. Therefore, it requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures under Article 368.

✅ Statement II is Correct: Changes in the extent of the executive power of a State affect Centre-State relations and also require ratification by not less than one-half of the States.

❌ Statement III is Incorrect: The conditions of the Governor's office can be amended by Parliament through the special majority procedure and do not require State ratification.

Therefore, only I and II require ratification by at least half of the States.

📝 Short Notes: Constitutional Amendments Requiring State Ratification

Key Fact:

Under Article 368, certain federal provisions can be amended only after ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — 2 and 3

Prorogation and dissolution are two distinct powers exercised by the President of India concerning Parliament. While prorogation is typically done after adjournment sine die, the President can technically prorogue a House even during a session, and this power is exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The Lok Sabha's dissolution also requires the President to act on ministerial advice except in exceptional political circumstances.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Under Article 85(2), the President prorogues the Houses only on the advice of the Council of Ministers (specifically the Prime Minister or Cabinet), not independently.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Though prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, there is no constitutional bar preventing the President from proroguing a House while it is still in session.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in rare circumstances like a hung parliament, vote of no confidence, or constitutional crisis.

📝 Short Notes: Prorogation and Dissolution of Parliament

• Adjournment: Temporary suspension of a sitting of Parliament until the next meeting, decided by the presiding officer (Speaker/Chairman).
• Adjournment Sine Die: Indefinite adjournment without fixing a date for the next meeting; terminates a session but not formally.
• Prorogation: Formal termination of a session by the President under Article 85(2), done on the advice of the Council of Ministers; ends all pending business of committees but not bills pending before the House.
• Dissolution: Applies only to Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha; brings the entire House to an end, requiring fresh elections; all pending bills (except those pending in Rajya Sabha or joint sitting) lapse.
• Constitutional Provisions: Article 85 deals with sessions, prorogation, and dissolution; Article 352-360 deal with Emergency provisions that can affect parliamentary functioning.
• President's Role: The President summons, prorogues, and dissolves Parliament, but acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers as per Article 74.
• Exception to Ministerial Advice: In hung parliaments or political crises, the President may exercise discretion in dissolution matters, though this remains constitutionally debated.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 2

When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, bills pending in the Lok Sabha and bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha automatically lapse. However, a bill in respect of which the President has notified his intention to summon a joint sitting does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, as the joint sitting mechanism continues to remain valid.

✅ Statement 1 (Bill pending in Lok Sabha) – Correct: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses automatically upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha as the dissolution terminates all pending legislative business in that House.

✅ Statement 2 (Bill passed by Lok Sabha, pending in Rajya Sabha) – Correct: A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, as it is considered a bill originating from the Lok Sabha.

❌ Statement 3 (Bill notified for joint sitting) – Incorrect: A bill in respect of which the President has notified his intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha and can be taken up in the joint sitting after the new Lok Sabha is constituted.

📝 Short Notes: Lapsing of Bills in Parliament

• Bills pending in Lok Sabha: All bills pending in the Lok Sabha lapse upon its dissolution, except those already passed and sent to the Rajya Sabha or those pending President's assent.
• Bills passed by Lok Sabha: Bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
• Bills pending in Rajya Sabha only: Bills originating and pending only in the Rajya Sabha do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, as the Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
• Bills notified for joint sitting: Bills in respect of which the President has notified his intention to summon a joint sitting do not lapse and can be taken up in the joint sitting after reconstitution of the Lok Sabha.
• Bills pending President's assent: Bills that have been passed by both Houses and are pending the President's assent do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
• Constitutional Bills: Bills pending at any stage, including constitutional amendment bills, follow the same lapsing rules as ordinary bills.
• Rajya Sabha as permanent House: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is never dissolved, hence bills originating and remaining only in it do not lapse due to Lok Sabha's dissolution.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — 1 only

Article 96 of the Indian Constitution governs the conduct of the Speaker during the consideration of their removal resolution. The Speaker is barred from presiding over the House during such proceedings but retains all other rights as a member, including the right to speak and vote in the first instance.

✅ Statement 1 (Presiding Restriction) – Correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker shall not preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is under consideration, even if present.

❌ Statement 2 (Right to Speak) – Incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker retains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution.

❌ Statement 3 (Voting Rights) – Incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote in the first instance on the resolution; they only lose the casting vote (second vote to break a tie) in this scenario.

📝 Short Notes: Speaker of Lok Sabha and Removal Process

• Election: The Speaker is elected by the members of Lok Sabha from amongst themselves, usually from the majority party, immediately after the constitution of a new House.
• Constitutional Provisions: Articles 93-96 deal with the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, including their election, removal, and powers.
• Removal Process: A resolution for removal requires 14 days' notice and must be passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (not just those present and voting).
• Presiding Restrictions (Article 96(1)): During the consideration of a removal resolution, the Speaker cannot preside but may remain present in the House.
• Member Rights (Article 96(2)): The Speaker retains the right to speak and participate in proceedings, and can vote in the first instance but not exercise a casting vote on their own removal resolution.
• Neutrality Expectation: After election, the Speaker is expected to sever ties with their political party and maintain impartiality in conducting House proceedings.
• Powers and Functions: The Speaker maintains order in the House, decides on questions of privilege, certifies Money Bills, and exercises various administrative and disciplinary powers.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2

Both statements are correct regarding the Union Budget. The Constitution of India mandates that the President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before Parliament, which is done in practice by the Union Finance Minister. Additionally, no demand for a grant can be made at the Union level without the recommendation of the President, ensuring executive control over public expenditure.

✅ Statement 1 (Presentation of Budget) – Correct: Under Article 112, the President causes the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) to be laid before both Houses of Parliament, which is presented in practice by the Union Finance Minister on behalf of the President.

✅ Statement 2 (Demand for Grants) – Correct: Article 113(3) explicitly provides that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President of India, ensuring executive control over expenditure proposals from the Consolidated Fund of India.

📝 Short Notes: Union Budget and Financial Procedure

• Annual Financial Statement (Article 112): The President causes the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) to be laid before both Houses of Parliament for each financial year, showing estimated receipts and expenditure.
• Contents of Budget: The Budget distinguishes expenditure as (a) charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (non-votable), and (b) made from the Consolidated Fund of India (votable by Parliament).
• Demand for Grants (Article 113): Expenditure from the Consolidated Fund requires parliamentary approval through demands for grants. No such demand can be made without the President's recommendation.
• Appropriation Bill (Article 114): After grants are voted, the Appropriation Bill is introduced to authorize the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund to meet the approved expenditure.
• Finance Bill (Article 110): A Money Bill containing provisions for taxation and other financial matters is introduced to give effect to the financial proposals of the government.
• Vote on Account (Article 116): Parliament can make an advance grant for a part of the financial year pending the voting of the main budget demands.
• Guillotine: A procedural device where all remaining demands for grants are put to vote simultaneously on the last day allotted for discussion, ensuring budget passage within the stipulated time.