UPSC CSE Prelims
Constitutional Bodies Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Showing solved Previous Year Questions for Chapter: Constitutional Bodies
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Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (I, III and IV)
The Fifteenth Finance Commission recommended several performance-based grants and incentives to improve governance, education, agriculture, and fiscal discipline among States.
✅ Statement I is Correct: The Commission recommended ₹4,800 crore during 2022–23 to 2025–26 to incentivize States for improving educational outcomes.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect: The Commission recommended that 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes be devolved to States, not 45%.
✅ Statement III is Correct: A ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive fund was proposed to encourage States to undertake agricultural reforms.
✅ Statement IV is Correct: The Commission reintroduced the Tax Effort Criterion to reward States that mobilize their own tax revenues more effectively relative to their economic capacity.
Short Notes: Fifteenth Finance Commission
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The 15th Finance Commission was chaired by N. K. Singh.
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Its recommendations covered the period 2021–26.
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It recommended 41% tax devolution to States.
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Introduced performance-based incentives in sectors like education, agriculture, and power reforms.
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Recommended ₹45,000 crore for agricultural reform-linked incentives.
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Reintroduced the Tax Effort criterion in the devolution formula.
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Finance Commissions are constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
Consider the following statements :
- Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
- According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements contain constitutional inaccuracies regarding parliamentary participation rights and the tenure of the Attorney General. Statement 1 incorrectly includes the Solicitor General, while Statement 2 misrepresents the constitutional provisions regarding the Attorney General's resignation.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 88 grants the right to participate in Parliament only to Ministers and the Attorney General of India, not the Solicitor General of India. Additionally, other officers like the Comptroller and Auditor General may also be invited to participate in specific contexts.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 76 states that the Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President, not linked to the government's tenure. There is no constitutional requirement for automatic resignation when the government changes.
📝 Short Notes: Attorney General of India (Article 76)
- Appointment: Appointed by the President; must be qualified to be a Supreme Court Judge
- Tenure: Holds office during the pleasure of the President (no fixed term); receives remuneration determined by the President
- Rights (Article 88): Can speak and participate in both Houses, joint sittings, and parliamentary committees but cannot vote
- Duties: Advises the Government on legal matters, performs legal duties assigned by the President, and represents the Government in the Supreme Court
- Solicitor General: Assists the Attorney General but has no constitutional provision for parliamentary participation
- Private Practice: The Attorney General can engage in private practice but cannot advise against the Government or appear against it
Consider the following statements:
- The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
- Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 3 only
The Election Commission of India is a three-member body (one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners), not five-member. The ECI itself decides the election schedule under Article 324, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Only Statement 3 is correct as the ECI has the statutory power to resolve disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognized political parties and allocate symbols accordingly.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The ECI is a three-member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners, not five members.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Election Commission of India, not the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, decides the election schedule for general elections and by-elections under Article 324 of the Constitution.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Election Commission has the authority to resolve disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognized political parties and decide on the allocation of party symbols.
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With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
- It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The 14th Finance Commission (chaired by Dr. Y.V. Reddy) increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32% to 42%, a historic jump aimed at enhancing fiscal federalism.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Commission moved away from recommending sector-specific grants to preserve state fiscal autonomy. It provided only grants for local bodies and disaster management, avoiding tied grants that restrict states' spending flexibility.
With reference to the National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
- Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: NALSA's primary objective is to provide free and competent legal services to weaker sections including women, children, SC/ST, and persons with disabilities on the basis of equal opportunity as mandated by Article 39A of the Constitution.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: NALSA is the apex body that issues guidelines, principles, and policies for State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs) to implement legal aid programs and schemes uniformly throughout the country under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for the intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
- CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
- CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
- Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
- While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: CAG does not exercise exchequer control during national/financial emergency; it performs audit functions independently under Article 148-151, not executive control over funds.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: CAG reports on execution of projects/programmes are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), which scrutinizes government expenditure based on these audit findings.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Information from CAG audit reports can be used by investigating agencies (CBI, ED) as evidence to initiate action against those who misused public funds or violated financial laws.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: CAG has no judicial powers to prosecute; it is an audit body that reports irregularities but cannot conduct prosecutions or impose penalties.
Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
- A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
- A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
- Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Thirteenth Finance Commission (2010-2015) recommended a detailed roadmap for GST implementation including design features and a compensation mechanism for states transitioning to the new tax regime.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Job creation falls outside the mandate of Finance Commissions, which are constitutionally tasked with recommending tax devolution and grants-in-aid, not employment generation policies.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Commission recommended grants to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) as a specified share of central taxes, amounting to ₹87,519 crore for the 2010-15 period.