UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Consider the following statements:
- In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
- According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements contain incorrect information about India's electoral and parliamentary procedures. India follows the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system where a simple plurality (highest votes) determines the winner, not an absolute majority (50%+). The Constitution does not mandate the allocation of Speaker and Deputy Speaker posts between majority and opposition parties; both are elected by members of the House.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: India uses the FPTP system where the candidate with the highest number of votes wins, regardless of whether they secure 50% or more of the total votes polled.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Constitution does not prescribe that the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition; both positions are elected by Lok Sabha members, though by convention the Deputy Speaker is often from the opposition.
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — The Preamble
The Preamble to the Constitution of India serves as the introductory statement that encapsulates the vision, philosophy, and objectives of the framers of the Constitution. It reflects the aspirations and ideals envisioned by the Constituent Assembly, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, and defines the foundational principles of sovereignty, socialism, secularism, democracy, and republicanism. While Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties elaborate on specific aspects of governance and citizen responsibilities, the Preamble concisely expresses the core intent and the philosophical foundation that guided the makers of the Constitution, making it the true reflection of their mind and vision.
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
According to Article 84 of the Indian Constitution and the Representation of the People Act, 1951, to file a nomination paper for Lok Sabha elections, a person must be a citizen of India, at least 25 years of age, and their name must be enrolled in the electoral roll of any parliamentary constituency in India. The candidate need not be a resident of the constituency from which they wish to contest; they can contest from any constituency as long as they are registered as a voter somewhere in India. This ensures that only registered voters with a stake in the electoral process can contest elections.
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Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Democratic decentralization
Local self-government is best understood as an exercise in democratic decentralization, which involves the transfer of powers, functions, and resources from higher levels of government to local bodies, coupled with active citizen participation through elected representatives. This ensures grassroots democracy, empowers communities to address local issues, and enables efficient service delivery at the lowest administrative level.
Why other options are incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Federalism: While local self-government operates within a federal structure, federalism primarily refers to the division of powers between the Union and State governments, not the devolution to local bodies.
❌ Option 3 – Administrative delegation: Administrative delegation involves temporary transfer of authority without constitutional backing or democratic participation, whereas local self-government has constitutional status (73rd and 74th Amendments) and involves elected representatives.
❌ Option 4 – Direct democracy: Direct democracy implies citizens directly participating in all decisions (like referendums), whereas local self-government works through elected representatives (representative democracy at the grassroots level).
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
- Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
- Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
- Dissolution of the local bodies
Which of the above-given statements is correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 3 only
When President's Rule is proclaimed under Article 356, the removal of the Council of Ministers is mandatory, but the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly and local bodies are not automatic consequences. The Assembly may be kept in suspended animation or dissolved, and local bodies continue to function under constitutional provisions unless separately dissolved.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not mandatory; it may be dissolved or kept in suspended animation during President's Rule.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Removal of the Council of Ministers is always a necessary consequence when President's Rule is imposed, as the Governor takes over executive functions.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Dissolution of local bodies is not an automatic consequence of President's Rule; they continue to function independently under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through -
- Adjournment motion
- Question hour
- Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers through multiple mechanisms to ensure executive accountability. All three instruments mentioned—Adjournment Motion, Question Hour, and Supplementary Questions—are important parliamentary tools for scrutinizing and controlling the executive.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Adjournment Motion allows discussion on urgent matters of public importance and can be used to censure the government, thereby exercising control over the Council of Ministers.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Question Hour is a daily mechanism during which MPs question ministers on policies and administrative actions, ensuring accountability and transparency in governance.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Supplementary Questions follow the initial answer during Question Hour, allowing MPs to probe deeper and seek clarifications, thereby enhancing parliamentary control over ministerial functioning.
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Economic liberty
The Preamble to the Constitution of India explicitly secures to all its citizens liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. However, economic liberty is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble. While the Constitution indirectly promotes economic freedom through Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), the term 'economic liberty' does not appear in the Preamble itself.
Analysis of Options:
✅ Option 1 – Liberty of thought: Explicitly mentioned in the Preamble under 'Liberty'.
❌ Option 2 – Economic liberty: Not explicitly embodied in the Preamble, making this the correct answer.
✅ Option 3 – Liberty of expression: Explicitly mentioned in the Preamble under 'Liberty'.
✅ Option 4 – Liberty of belief: Explicitly mentioned in the Preamble under 'Liberty'.
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
The Cabinet form of Government is a defining feature of parliamentary democracy where the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the legislature (Parliament). This principle is enshrined in Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Why Option 3 is Correct:
Collective responsibility means that Cabinet decisions bind all ministers, who must publicly support them even if they personally disagree. If Parliament passes a vote of no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers must resign, ensuring democratic accountability and preventing arbitrary executive rule.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: The Cabinet system is not designed to minimize criticism but to ensure accountability through collective responsibility to Parliament.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: While efficiency may be a benefit, the underlying principle is collective responsibility and accountability, not merely speeding up government activities.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: The Cabinet system is not a device to strengthen the head of government's hold over people, but to ensure collective decision-making and accountability to the legislature.
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Participation of workers in management of industries
Article 43A, which mandates participation of workers in the management of industries, was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. This provision was introduced to promote industrial democracy and ensure that workers have a meaningful role in decision-making within industrial establishments. The other options—equal pay for equal work (Article 39(d)), right to work and education (Article 41), and securing living wage (Article 43)—were all part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950.
Why other options are incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Equal pay for equal work: This was already present in Article 39(d) of the original Constitution.
❌ Option 3 – Right to work, education and public assistance: This was included in Article 41 of the original Constitution.
❌ Option 4 – Securing living wage and human conditions: This was part of Article 43 in the original Constitution itself.
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Privileges
Equality in society implies that all individuals have the same rights, opportunities, and status without any preferential treatment. The presence of privileges—unearned advantages or special rights enjoyed by certain groups or individuals—directly contradicts the principle of equality, as it creates hierarchies and differential treatment. Therefore, the absence of privileges is a fundamental implication of a truly equal society.
Analysis of Options:
✅ Privileges – Correct: Privileges represent special advantages given to select groups, which are incompatible with the principle of equality that demands uniform rights and opportunities for all.
❌ Restraints – Incorrect: Reasonable restraints (such as laws and regulations) are necessary to ensure equality and prevent discrimination, thus they can coexist with equality.
❌ Competition – Incorrect: Fair competition based on merit is compatible with equality, provided that all individuals have equal opportunities to compete.
❌ Ideology – Incorrect: Various ideologies can support or oppose equality; ideology itself is not inherently absent in an equal society.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
- A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements about private member's bills in the Indian Parliament are incorrect. A private member's bill is introduced by any MP who is not a minister, regardless of whether they are elected or nominated, not specifically by nominated members only. Additionally, private member's bills have been passed in Parliament's history, with 14 such bills enacted since 1952, though the last one was passed in 1970.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: A private member's bill can be presented by any MP (elected or nominated) who is not a minister, not just by nominated members.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Private member's bills have been passed in Parliament's history; 14 such bills were enacted between 1952 and 1970, with the last one being the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1970.
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
The fundamental feature of the parliamentary form of government is the principle of collective responsibility, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is directly accountable to the legislature. According to Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and can remain in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the House. This ensures democratic accountability and control over the executive by elected representatives.
Why other options are incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: In a parliamentary system, the executive and legislature are interdependent, not independent. Separation of powers is a feature of the Presidential system.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: The Presidential system, not the parliamentary system, is known for continuity of policy due to fixed tenure. Parliamentary governments can change frequently through votes of no confidence.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: In a parliamentary system, the head of government (Prime Minister) can be changed through a vote of no confidence or party leadership change without a general election, unlike in a Presidential system.
Consider the following statements:
- The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
- Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 3 only
The Election Commission of India is a three-member body (one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners), not five-member. The ECI itself decides the election schedule under Article 324, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Only Statement 3 is correct as the ECI has the statutory power to resolve disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognized political parties and allocate symbols accordingly.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The ECI is a three-member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners, not five members.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Election Commission of India, not the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, decides the election schedule for general elections and by-elections under Article 324 of the Constitution.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Election Commission has the authority to resolve disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognized political parties and decide on the allocation of party symbols.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Abolition of untouchability
- Protection of the interests of minorities
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 4 only
The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24) specifically protects individuals from forced labor, human trafficking, and child exploitation in hazardous occupations. Articles 23 and 24 directly correspond to statements 1 and 4 respectively, making them the only correct components of this fundamental right.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 23 explicitly prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labor), and similar forms of forced labor.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Abolition of untouchability is covered under Article 17, which falls under the Right to Equality, not the Right against Exploitation.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Protection of the interests of minorities is ensured through Articles 29-30 under Cultural and Educational Rights, not under the Right against Exploitation.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or any hazardous occupation, directly addressing child exploitation.
Thus, only statements 1 and 4 form part of the Right against Exploitation under the Indian Constitution.
Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
- Legislative function.
- Executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution are not limitations but positive guidelines for the State. They are non-justiciable under Article 37, meaning they cannot be enforced in courts but serve as fundamental principles for governance. DPSPs guide both legislative and executive functions towards achieving socio-economic justice, rather than constraining or limiting these functions.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: DPSPs are not limitations on legislative function; they are positive instructions and guiding principles that the legislature should strive to implement while making laws.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: DPSPs are not limitations on executive function; being non-justiciable, they serve as policy goals and guiding ideals for the executive to pursue in governance and administration.