UPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2025 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
Detailed Explanation:
The Chauri Chaura Incident (1922) led to the arrest of hundreds of people, many of whom were awarded severe punishments, including death sentences.
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Madan Mohan Malaviya and his son Krishna Kant provided legal defence to the accused.
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Their efforts in the Allahabad High Court helped reduce many death sentences and saved numerous people from execution.
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Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect
| Option | Why Incorrect |
|---|---|
| C. R. Das | He was a prominent nationalist leader and lawyer but did not defend the Chauri Chaura accused. |
| Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami | They were associated with the Khilafat and nationalist movements, not the Chauri Chaura trial. |
| M. A. Jinnah | He was not involved in providing legal defence in this case. |
📝 Short Notes: Chauri Chaura Incident (1922)
What Happened?
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On 4 February 1922, protesters clashed with police at Chauri Chaura Incident in present-day Uttar Pradesh.
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An angry mob set a police station on fire, resulting in the death of 22 policemen.
Impact
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The incident convinced Mahatma Gandhi that the movement was turning violent.
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As a result, Gandhi withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922.
Important Fact
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Initially, 172 persons were sentenced to death by the Sessions Court. After the appeal argued by Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant, the number of death sentences was drastically reduced.
Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?
Detailed Explanation:
The Self-Respect Movement was founded by 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker in 1925 in Tamil Nadu.
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Periyar launched the movement to fight caste discrimination, social inequality, and Brahminical dominance.
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The movement promoted self-respect, rationalism, women's rights, and equality.
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Therefore, Option A is the correct answer.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect
| Option | Why Incorrect |
|---|---|
| Dr. B. R. Ambedkar | Led movements against untouchability and for Dalit rights, but did not found the Self-Respect Movement. |
| Bhaskarrao Jadhav | Associated with the Non-Brahmin Movement in Maharashtra, not the Self-Respect Movement. |
| Dinkarrao Javalkar | A social reformer from Maharashtra, but not the founder of the movement. |
📝 Short Notes: Self-Respect Movement
What was the Self-Respect Movement?
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Started in 1925 by E. V. Ramasamy.
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Sought to create a society based on equality, rationalism, and social justice.
Major Objectives
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End caste-based discrimination.
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Oppose untouchability and social hierarchy.
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Promote women's rights and self-respect marriages.
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Encourage scientific thinking and rationalism.
Important Fact
-
The movement became the ideological foundation of the Dravidian Movement in South India and influenced later political parties in Tamil Nadu.
Consider the following fruits:
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
Detailed Explanation:
The Portuguese played an important role in introducing several New World crops and fruits to India during the 16th and 17th centuries.
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I. Papaya ✅ – Native to Central America; introduced by the Portuguese.
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II. Pineapple ✅ – Native to South America; brought to India by the Portuguese.
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III. Guava ✅ – Native to Central America; introduced by the Portuguese.
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Therefore, all three fruits were introduced into India by the Portuguese, making Option C the correct answer.\
📝 Short Notes: Portuguese Contributions to Indian Agriculture
Major Crops/Fruits Introduced by the Portuguese
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Papaya
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Pineapple
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Guava
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Cashew
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Tobacco
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Maize
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Tomato
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Potato
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Chilli
Why is it Important?
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These crops originated in the Americas and reached India through the Columbian Exchange.
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Many of them later became an integral part of Indian agriculture and cuisine.
Important Fact
-
Among all introduced crops, chilli had the most significant impact on Indian food habits.
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Sedition has become my religion' was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
Detailed Explanation:
The statement "Sedition has become my religion" is associated with Mahatma Gandhi's Salt Satyagraha (1930) and the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Gandhi believed that when a government becomes unjust and oppressive, non-violent resistance against it becomes a moral duty. The violation of the Salt Law at Dandi symbolized this spirit of peaceful defiance against British rule.
Why other options are wrong:
| Option | Why not correct? |
|---|---|
| Champaran Satyagraha | Focused on the grievances of indigo farmers in Bihar. |
| Second Round Table Conference | It was a constitutional discussion in London, not linked to this statement. |
| Quit India Movement | Launched in 1942, much later than the Salt Satyagraha. |
📝 Short Notes: Salt Satyagraha (Dandi March)
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Year | 1930 |
| Leader | Mahatma Gandhi |
| Route | Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi |
| Distance | About 390 km |
| Objective | Protest against the British Salt Tax |
| Outcome | Beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement |
Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabharata'?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Mahendravarman I was a famous Pallava ruler known for his contributions to art, architecture, and literature.
He assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’, and ‘Gunabhara’ (Gunabharata), which reflected his creative personality and intellectual interests. He also wrote the Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasana.
Why other options are wrong:
| Option | Why not correct? |
|---|---|
| Simhavishnu | Pallava ruler, but did not use these titles. |
| Narasimhavarman I | Famous for defeating Pulakeshin II and building Mamallapuram, but not associated with these titles. |
| Simhavarman | Earlier Pallava ruler, not known by these epithets. |
📝 Short Notes: Mahendravarman I
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Dynasty | Pallava |
| Period | 7th Century CE |
| Capital | Kanchipuram |
| Famous Titles | Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta, Gunabhara |
| Literary Work | Mattavilasa Prahasana |
| Contribution | Patron of rock-cut architecture and arts |
Key Fact:
Mahendravarman I initiated the rock-cut temple architecture tradition in South India, which was later expanded by the Pallavas.
Consider the following countries:
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
Detailed Explanation:
Among the given countries, Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia are members of NATO.
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❌ Austria is not a NATO member and follows a policy of neutrality.
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❌ Serbia is not a NATO member, though it cooperates with NATO through the Partnership for Peace programme.
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✅ Bulgaria (2004), ✅ Croatia (2009), ✅ North Macedonia (2020), and ✅ Sweden (2024) are NATO members.
Therefore, 4 countries are members of NATO.
Country-wise Analysis:
| Country | NATO Member? |
|---|---|
| Austria | ❌ No |
| Bulgaria | ✅ Yes |
| Croatia | ✅ Yes |
| Serbia | ❌ No |
| Sweden | ✅ Yes |
| North Macedonia | ✅ Yes |
Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement I is Correct: The AI Action Summit (Paris, February 2025) was co-chaired by India and France. It built upon the discussions held at the Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit (2023) in the UK and the Seoul AI Summit (2024) in South Korea.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect: Although 58 countries signed the declaration on Inclusive and Sustainable AI, the United States and the United Kingdom did not sign the declaration due to concerns over regulatory and governance issues.
Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
Consider the following pairs:
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
All four pairs are correctly matched as per the United Nations declarations for upcoming international years.
✅ Pair I: International Year of the Woman Farmer — 2026
✅ Pair II: International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism — 2027
✅ Pair III: International Year of Peace and Trust — 2025
✅ Pair IV: International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence — 2029
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of tourism is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is a regional organization connecting South Asia and Southeast Asia. It promotes cooperation in areas such as trade, connectivity, security, energy, and tourism.
✅ Statement I is Correct: BIMSTEC had 7 member countries till January 2025 — Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect: BIMSTEC was established through the Bangkok Declaration (1997), not the Dhaka Declaration.
❌ Statement III is Incorrect: Nepal was not a founding member. The founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Myanmar.
❌ Statement IV is Incorrect: In BIMSTEC, the Tourism sector is led by Nepal, not India.
Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement I is Incorrect: The 45th Chess Olympiad (2024) is a team-based tournament played in a Swiss-system format, not an individual knockout competition with a "final" match. While India won the gold medal and Gukesh Dommaraju won individual gold on Board 1, he did not defeat Ian Nepomniachtchi in a final; Russian teams were suspended from the 2024 Olympiad by FIDE.
Statement II is Correct: Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, became the world's youngest Grandmaster in June 2021 at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, breaking the previous record held by Sergey Karjakin.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Kho Kho World Cup:
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement I: Correct The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi, India, from January 13-19, 2025.
❌ Statement II: Incorrect India defeated Nepal 54-36 (not 78-40) to win the men’s final.
❌ Statement III: Incorrect India beat Nepal 78-40 (not 54-36) in the women’s final.
Additional Context: 24 countries participated, and the event was organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India with the International Kho Kho Federation.
Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement I is Correct: The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan, Russia, from October 22 to 24, 2024. Russia held the rotating chairship for the year 2024.
Statement II is Correct: Indonesia officially announced its intention to join BRICS and has been integrated into the bloc as a full member following the 16th Summit in Kazan, as part of the group's ongoing expansion to include key emerging economies from the Global South.
Statement III is Incorrect: The official theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was "Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security." The statement incorrectly uses the word "Multiculturalism," which changes the diplomatic meaning of the theme.
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
Detailed Explanation:
INSTC connects India → Iran → Central Asia/Russia → Europe, using a mix of sea, rail, and road.
The route looks like this: Mumbai (India) → Bandar Abbas (Iran) → Azerbaijan/Russia → Europe, with branches reaching Central Asia too.
Why other options are wrong:
| Option | Issue |
|---|---|
| Option 2 | Wrong path — INSTC goes via Iran, not China |
| Option 3 | Different corridor entirely — that's about Act East Policy connectivity |
| Option 4 | Incomplete — Azerbaijan is just one stop, the full route goes via Iran first |
📝 Short Notes: INSTC (for Revision)
| Feature | Detail |
|---|---|
| Full Name | International North-South Transport Corridor |
| Established | 2000, by India, Iran, and Russia (founding members) |
| Type | Multimodal (sea + rail + road) |
| Route | Mumbai → Bandar Abbas (Iran) → Caspian Sea/Azerbaijan/Russia → Europe |
| Length | ~7,200 km |
| Purpose | Reduce transport time/cost between India and Europe/Central Asia/Russia |
| Significance for India | Bypasses Pakistan; reduces dependency on Suez Canal route |
| Chabahar Port connection | Iran's Chabahar Port is a key node, developed with Indian assistance |
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
| Organization | Some of its Functions | It Works Under |
|---|---|---|
| Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs |
| Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
| Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Row 1 is Incorrect: The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
✅ Row 2 is Correct: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
❌ Row 3 is Incorrect: The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (DGSDM) mainly manages and maintains IT systems of CBIC. Big data analytics and risk assessment to detect tax evasion are performed by DGARM (Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management).
Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.
Why other rows are incorrect:
| Row | Issue |
|---|---|
| Row 1 | ED works under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs |
| Row 3 | Big data analytics is the function of DGARM, not DGSDM |
Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha continues in office even after the House is dissolved and remains in position until just before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha. Also, the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of the House after giving 14 days' notice.
However, the Constitution does not require a Speaker to resign from his/her political party upon election. Political neutrality is expected as a convention, not a constitutional requirement.
Why other statements are wrong:
| Statement | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| I | ✅ Correct | Speaker continues in office after dissolution of Lok Sabha (Article 94). |
| II | ❌ Incorrect | No constitutional provision requires resignation from political party. |
| III | ✅ Correct | Removal requires majority of all then members with 14 days' notice. |
📝 Short Notes: Speaker of Lok Sabha
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Provision | Article 93 & Article 94 |
| Election | Elected by Lok Sabha members |
| Tenure | Continues even after dissolution until new House meets |
| Removal | By majority of all then members of Lok Sabha |
| Notice Required | 14 days |
| Party Resignation | Not mandatory under Constitution |
Key Fact:
The Speaker is expected to act impartially, but unlike in some countries, the Indian Constitution does not require the Speaker to give up party membership.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), State Governments have the power to make rules regarding the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, and other concessions for minor minerals.
However, the Central Government has the authority to notify which minerals will be classified as minor minerals under the Act.
Why the statements are correct/incorrect:
| Statement | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| I | ❌ Incorrect | State Governments can make rules for granting concessions related to minor minerals. |
| II | ✅ Correct | Central Government notifies and classifies minerals as minor minerals under the MMDR Act. |
📝 Short Notes: Minor Minerals under MMDR Act
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Governing Law | MMDR Act, 1957 |
| Classification Power | Central Government |
| Regulation of Concessions | State Governments |
| Examples | Sand, gravel, clay, ordinary stone |
| Purpose | Local construction and small-scale mining activities |
Key Fact:
Minor minerals are regulated mainly by State Governments, but their classification as "minor minerals" is decided by the Central Government.
Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for an anti-corruption ombudsman at the national level. The Lokpal can investigate corruption allegations against public servants, including certain cases involving the Prime Minister.
Only Statement III is correct because a person must be at least 45 years old to become the Chairperson or a Member of the Lokpal.
Why other statements are wrong:
| Statement | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| I | ❌ Incorrect | Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to Indian public servants, including those posted abroad. |
| II | ❌ Incorrect | Chairperson need not be only the Chief Justice of India; former judges or eminent persons can also be appointed. |
| III | ✅ Correct | Minimum age for Chairperson or Member is 45 years. |
| IV | ❌ Incorrect | Lokpal can inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister, subject to specific safeguards. |
📝 Short Notes: Lokpal
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Established Under | Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 |
| Purpose | Anti-corruption ombudsman |
| Minimum Age | 45 years |
| Jurisdiction | Public servants, including certain cases involving PM |
| Chairperson | Former CJI, Supreme Court Judge, or eminent person |
| Members | Judicial and non-judicial members |
Key Fact:
The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and up to eight Members, with at least 50% of the Members being from SC, ST, OBC, minorities, or women.
Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Both statements are incorrect. Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the decision on disqualification of MPs is made by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha), not by the President.
Also, the term "political party" is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which deals with defection and party membership.
Why the statements are wrong:
| Statement | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| I | ❌ Incorrect | Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Speaker/Chairman, not the President. |
| II | ❌ Incorrect | The term "political party" is mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. |
📝 Short Notes: Anti-Defection Law
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Added By | 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 |
| Constitutional Provision | Tenth Schedule |
| Decision Authority | Speaker (Lok Sabha) / Chairman (Rajya Sabha) |
| Purpose | Prevent political defections |
| Grounds | Voluntarily giving up party membership or violating party whip |
Key Fact:
The Anti-Defection Law was introduced to curb political instability caused by frequent party switching by elected representatives.
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The President's pardoning power (Article 72) is not absolute. The Supreme Court can review its exercise in limited situations such as mala fide intent, arbitrariness, or consideration of irrelevant facts.
However, the President cannot exercise this power independently. Under Article 74, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
Why the statements are correct/incorrect:
| Statement | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| I | ✅ Correct | Pardoning power is subject to limited judicial review. |
| II | ❌ Incorrect | President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers. |
📝 Short Notes: Pardoning Power of the President
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Provision | Article 72 |
| Authority | President of India |
| Acts On | Aid and advice of Council of Ministers |
| Judicial Review | Allowed in limited cases |
| Types of Clemency | Pardon, Reprieve, Respite, Remission, Commutation |
Key Fact:
The President can grant pardon in cases involving court-martial, Union laws, and death sentences.
Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Detailed Explanation:
All three statements are incorrect.
-
Intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in states with a population below 20 lakh.
-
Minimum age to become a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 30 years.
-
The Governor, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the State Finance Commission.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayats. It provides for a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, regular elections, reservation, and State Finance Commissions for financial review.
UPSC Prelims 2025 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Indian Polity
18 Qs (18%)Indian Economy
16 Qs (16%)Science & Technology
14 Qs (14%)Environment & Ecology
13 Qs (13%)World Geography
12 Qs (12%)Modern History
8 Qs (8%)International Relations
7 Qs (7%)Ancient History
6 Qs (6%)Current Affairs
4 Qs (4%)Medieval History
1 Qs (1%)Indian Art & Culture
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2025?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2025?
- Indian Polity: 18 questions (18%)
- Indian Economy: 16 questions (16%)
- Science & Technology: 14 questions (14%)
- Environment & Ecology: 13 questions (13%)
- World Geography: 12 questions (12%)
- Modern History: 8 questions (8%)
- International Relations: 7 questions (7%)
- Ancient History: 6 questions (6%)
- Current Affairs: 4 questions (4%)
- Medieval History: 1 questions (1%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 1 questions (1%)