UPSC Prelims 2025
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)

Detailed Explanation:

❌ Row 1 is Incorrect: The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

✅ Row 2 is Correct: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

❌ Row 3 is Incorrect: The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (DGSDM) mainly manages and maintains IT systems of CBIC. Big data analytics and risk assessment to detect tax evasion are performed by DGARM (Directorate General of Analytics and Risk Management).

Therefore, only one row is correctly matched.

Why other rows are incorrect:

Detailed Explanation:

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha continues in office even after the House is dissolved and remains in position until just before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha. Also, the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of the House after giving 14 days' notice.

However, the Constitution does not require a Speaker to resign from his/her political party upon election. Political neutrality is expected as a convention, not a constitutional requirement.

Why other statements are wrong:

📝 Short Notes: Speaker of Lok Sabha

Key Fact:
The Speaker is expected to act impartially, but unlike in some countries, the Indian Constitution does not require the Speaker to give up party membership.

Detailed Explanation:

Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), State Governments have the power to make rules regarding the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, and other concessions for minor minerals.

However, the Central Government has the authority to notify which minerals will be classified as minor minerals under the Act.

Why the statements are correct/incorrect:

📝 Short Notes: Minor Minerals under MMDR Act

Key Fact:
Minor minerals are regulated mainly by State Governments, but their classification as "minor minerals" is decided by the Central Government.

Detailed Explanation:

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for an anti-corruption ombudsman at the national level. The Lokpal can investigate corruption allegations against public servants, including certain cases involving the Prime Minister.

Only Statement III is correct because a person must be at least 45 years old to become the Chairperson or a Member of the Lokpal.

Why other statements are wrong:

📝 Short Notes: Lokpal

Key Fact:
The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and up to eight Members, with at least 50% of the Members being from SC, ST, OBC, minorities, or women.

Detailed Explanation:

Both statements are incorrect. Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the decision on disqualification of MPs is made by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (or Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha), not by the President.

Also, the term "political party" is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which deals with defection and party membership.

Why the statements are wrong:

📝 Short Notes: Anti-Defection Law

Key Fact:
The Anti-Defection Law was introduced to curb political instability caused by frequent party switching by elected representatives.

Detailed Explanation:

The President's pardoning power (Article 72) is not absolute. The Supreme Court can review its exercise in limited situations such as mala fide intent, arbitrariness, or consideration of irrelevant facts.

However, the President cannot exercise this power independently. Under Article 74, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Why the statements are correct/incorrect:

📝 Short Notes: Pardoning Power of the President

Key Fact:
The President can grant pardon in cases involving court-martial, Union laws, and death sentences.

Detailed Explanation:

All three statements are incorrect.

• Intermediate-level Panchayats are not mandatory in states with a population below 20 lakh.

• Minimum age to become a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 30 years.

• The Governor, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the State Finance Commission.

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Panchayats. It provides for a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, regular elections, reservation, and State Finance Commissions for financial review.

Detailed Explanation:

All three pairs are correctly matched.

• Article 50 (DPSP) directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive.

• Article 51A(f) (Fundamental Duties) asks citizens to value and preserve India's composite cultural heritage.

• Article 24 (Fundamental Rights) prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, and hazardous occupations.

Detailed Explanation:

Among the given bodies, only the Inter-State Council is a constitutional body.

✅ Statement I: Inter-State Council — Correct

• Established under Article 263 of the Constitution.

• It promotes coordination and cooperation between the Centre and States.

❌ Statement II: National Security Council — Incorrect

• Established in 1998 through an Executive Order.

• It is not mentioned in the Constitution.

❌ Statement III: Zonal Councils — Incorrect

• Created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

• They are statutory bodies, not constitutional bodies.

Therefore, only one body was established as per the provisions of the Constitution.

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement I is Correct

• The Constitution explicitly provides situations where the Governor can act in his/her discretion.

• Article 163(2) states that if any question arises regarding the Governor's discretionary powers, the Governor's decision shall be final.

• Examples include reserving certain bills for the President and decisions in specific political situations.

❌ Statement II is Incorrect

• The President cannot directly reserve a State Bill for consideration.

• A State Bill reaches the President only when the Governor reserves it under Article 200.

• Therefore, the President cannot act suo motu (on his/her own) in this matter.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

📝 Short Notes: Governor's Discretionary Powers

Key Fact:

Unlike the President, whose discretionary powers are very limited, the Governor enjoys certain constitutional discretionary powers, especially in Centre-State relations.

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement I is Correct: An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it can amend, repeal, or modify any Central Act, subject to constitutional limits.

❌ Statement II is Incorrect: An Ordinance cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights. Article 13(2) prohibits the State from making any law that violates Fundamental Rights.

✅ Statement III is Correct: An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect (back date), just like a law passed by Parliament.

Therefore, Statements I and III are correct.

📝 Short Notes: Ordinance

Key Fact:
The Supreme Court has held that Ordinance-making power is a legislative power, but it is subject to judicial review.

Detailed Explanation:

❌ Statement I is Incorrect: Declaration of a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule does not remove the State Government's executive powers. Administration remains with the State Government, while special safeguards are provided for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.

❌ Statement II is Incorrect: The Fifth Schedule does not authorize the Union Government to take over the total administration of Scheduled Areas. The Union can issue directions to the State regarding their administration, but a complete takeover is not provided under the Schedule.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

📝 Short Notes: Fifth Schedule

Key Fact:

The Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes, while the Sixth Schedule provides autonomous councils in certain tribal areas of the Northeast.

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement I is Correct: Any amendment affecting the Union List (Seventh Schedule) changes the distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States. Therefore, it requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures under Article 368.

✅ Statement II is Correct: Changes in the extent of the executive power of a State affect Centre-State relations and also require ratification by not less than one-half of the States.

❌ Statement III is Incorrect: The conditions of the Governor's office can be amended by Parliament through the special majority procedure and do not require State ratification.

Therefore, only I and II require ratification by at least half of the States.

📝 Short Notes: Constitutional Amendments Requiring State Ratification

Key Fact:

Under Article 368, certain federal provisions can be amended only after ratification by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures.

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement I is Correct: Under Article 361(1), the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office.

✅ Statement II is Correct: As per Article 361(2), no criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against a Governor during the term of office.

✅ Statement III is Correct: Under Article 194(2), Members of a State Legislature enjoy freedom of speech in the House and cannot be taken to court for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

📝 Short Notes: Constitutional Immunities & Privileges

Key Fact:

The immunity under Article 361 is temporary. Criminal proceedings can be initiated after the Governor demits office.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (All the three)

All three pairs are correctly matched. The question combines facts related to the capitals, national parks, and constitutional history of northeastern states.

✅ Pair I is Correct: Arunachal Pradesh's capital Itanagar is named after the historic Ita Fort, and the state has two National Parks—Namdapha and Mouling.

✅ Pair II is Correct: Nagaland became a state on 1 December 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, following constitutional provisions for its creation.

✅ Pair III is Correct: Tripura was a Part 'C' State, became a Union Territory in 1956, and attained full statehood on 21 January 1972.

Short Notes: North-Eastern States – Formation and Features

• Arunachal Pradesh became a full-fledged state in 1987.

• Ita Fort is a historical fort from which Itanagar derives its name.

• Namdapha National Park is one of India's largest protected areas.

• Nagaland became the 16th state of India in 1963.

• Tripura was a princely state before merging with India in 1949.

• Tripura and Manipur became full-fledged states in 1972.

• The North-East is often called the "Seven Sisters" region.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (None)

This question tests knowledge of the ministries under which various statutory and autonomous bodies function. All three pairs are incorrectly matched.

❌ Pair I is Incorrect: National Automotive Board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

❌ Pair II is Incorrect: Coir Board functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

❌ Pair III is Incorrect: National Centre for Trade Information is associated with the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of MSME.

Short Notes: Important Boards and Organizations

• National Automotive Board (NAB) functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

• NAB supports implementation of India's automotive policies and initiatives.

• Coir Board was established under the Coir Industry Act, 1953.

• Coir Board operates under the Ministry of MSME.

• The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) is linked to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

• NCTI facilitates access to trade-related information and export promotion.

• UPSC frequently asks questions on organizations and their parent ministries.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (I, III and IV)

The Fifteenth Finance Commission recommended several performance-based grants and incentives to improve governance, education, agriculture, and fiscal discipline among States.

✅ Statement I is Correct: The Commission recommended ₹4,800 crore during 2022–23 to 2025–26 to incentivize States for improving educational outcomes.

❌ Statement II is Incorrect: The Commission recommended that 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes be devolved to States, not 45%.

✅ Statement III is Correct: A ₹45,000 crore performance-based incentive fund was proposed to encourage States to undertake agricultural reforms.

✅ Statement IV is Correct: The Commission reintroduced the Tax Effort Criterion to reward States that mobilize their own tax revenues more effectively relative to their economic capacity.

Short Notes: Fifteenth Finance Commission

• The 15th Finance Commission was chaired by N. K. Singh.

• Its recommendations covered the period 2021–26.

• It recommended 41% tax devolution to States.

• Introduced performance-based incentives in sectors like education, agriculture, and power reforms.

• Recommended ₹45,000 crore for agricultural reform-linked incentives.

• Reintroduced the Tax Effort criterion in the devolution formula.

• Finance Commissions are constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 2 (Only two)

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) regulates mainly the downstream petroleum and natural gas sector. It does not regulate upstream activities such as exploration and production of crude oil and natural gas.

❌ Activity I: Production of crude oil – Not Regulated by PNGRB

Production of crude oil is an upstream activity regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas and the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons.

✅ Activity II: Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum products – Regulated

PNGRB regulates aspects of storage, transportation, distribution, and common carrier access in the downstream sector.

✅ Activity III: Marketing and sale of petroleum products – Regulated

PNGRB authorizes entities for marketing notified petroleum products and natural gas and promotes fair competition.

❌ Activity IV: Production of natural gas – Not Regulated by PNGRB

Like crude oil production, natural gas production is an upstream activity and falls outside PNGRB's regulatory jurisdiction.

Therefore, only II and III fall under PNGRB regulation.

Short Notes: Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)

• PNGRB was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006.

• It regulates the downstream petroleum and natural gas sector.

• It ensures fair competition in petroleum and natural gas markets.

• It regulates pipelines, city gas distribution networks, storage, and transportation.

• It does not regulate exploration or production of crude oil and natural gas.

• Upstream activities are overseen by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) and the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.

• PNGRB helps protect consumer interests and promotes investment in energy infrastructure.