UPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2025 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement I — Correct. Most low-producing indigenous cattle/buffalo are owned by small farmers, marginal farmers, and landless labourers. By improving the productivity of these animals, RGM directly helps uplift the rural poor.
Statement II — Correct. Launched in December 2014, RGM's purpose is to conserve and improve indigenous breeds of cattle and buffalo through scientific breeding and genetic upgradation — done in a holistic manner (covering breeding, health, nutrition).
Both statements describe two connected aspects of the same scheme — purpose (II) and impact (I).
Rashtriya Gokul Mission
| Feature | Detail |
|---|---|
| Launched | December 2014 |
| Ministry | Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying |
| Objective | Conservation and development of indigenous cattle & buffalo breeds |
| Method | Scientific breeding, genetic upgradation, artificial insemination |
| Key Components | Establishment of Gokul Grams (integrated cattle development centers) |
| Beneficiaries | Small farmers, marginal farmers, landless labourers |
| Related Scheme | Part of the broader National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development (NPBBDD) |
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'?
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Statement I — Incorrect. The President of India is NOT a member of the Jury.
Statement II — Correct. The Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson of the Jury.
Statement III — Correct. The Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court judge nominated by CJI) is a Jury member.
Statement IV — Correct. The Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha (or leader of the largest opposition party) is a Jury member.
So only PM, CJI, and Leader of Opposition are on the Jury — President is NOT.
Gandhi Peace Prize
| Feature | Detail |
|---|---|
| Instituted | 1995, on Mahatma Gandhi's 125th birth anniversary |
| Given by | Government of India |
| Awarded for | Social, economic, and political transformation through non-violence and Gandhian methods |
| Jury Chairperson | Prime Minister of India |
| Jury Members | CJI (or nominated SC judge), Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, two other eminent persons |
| Eligible recipients | Individuals/organizations, irrespective of nationality, race, language, caste, creed, sex |
| Prize details | ₹1 crore + citation + plaque |
Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement I — Correct. The scheme targets installing rooftop solar panels in 1 crore households in the residential sector, giving them free electricity.
Statement II — Correct. MNRE (Ministry of New and Renewable Energy) trains people at the grassroot level in installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of solar rooftop systems.
Statement III — Correct. The scheme's capacity-building component aims to create 3+ lakh skilled workers through fresh skilling and up-skilling — meeting the demand for solar technicians.
All three statements describe different parts of the same scheme — no contradictions.
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana (for Revision)
| Feature | Detail |
|---|---|
| Launched | February 2024 |
| Ministry | Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) |
| Target | 1 crore households with rooftop solar panels |
| Benefit | Free electricity to households (up to 300 units/month) |
| Subsidy | Central Financial Assistance for solar panel installation |
| Capacity Building | Training 3+ lakh skilled workers (fresh skilling + up-skilling) |
| Goal | Reduce electricity bills, promote renewable energy, create green jobs |
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In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
Detailed Explanation:
In most Lithium-ion Electric Vehicle (EV) batteries, the cathode is made using combinations of Lithium, Cobalt, and Nickel.
-
Statement I (Cobalt) ✅ Correct – Used in cathodes such as NMC and LCO batteries.
-
Statement II (Graphite) ❌ Incorrect – Graphite is generally used in the anode, not the cathode.
-
Statement III (Lithium) ✅ Correct – A key component of all lithium-ion battery cathodes.
-
Statement IV (Nickel) ✅ Correct – Commonly used in NMC and NCA cathode chemistries.
-
Therefore, only three elements (Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel) usually make up battery cathodes, making Option C the correct answer.
Element-wise Analysis
| Element | Cathode Material? | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| Cobalt | ✅ Yes | Used in LCO and NMC batteries. |
| Graphite | ❌ No | Primarily used in the anode. |
| Lithium | ✅ Yes | Essential component of lithium-ion cathodes. |
| Nickel | ✅ Yes | Improves energy density in NMC and NCA batteries. |
EV Battery Components
| Component | Common Material |
|---|---|
| Cathode | Lithium, Nickel, Cobalt, Manganese, Iron Phosphate |
| Anode | Graphite |
| Electrolyte | Lithium Salt Solution |
| Separator | Polymer Membrane |
Common Cathode Chemistries
-
LCO – Lithium Cobalt Oxide
-
NMC – Nickel Manganese Cobalt
-
NCA – Nickel Cobalt Aluminum
-
LFP – Lithium Iron Phosphate
Important Facts
-
Cathode materials largely determine a battery's energy density and cost.
-
Graphite remains the most widely used anode material in EV batteries.
-
Demand for Lithium, Nickel, and Cobalt has increased significantly due to the global EV transition.
What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
Detailed Explanation:
CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are advanced high-energy explosive compounds used in military applications.
-
CL-20 is one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives developed.
-
HMX is widely used in missiles, warheads, and other military munitions.
-
LLM-105 is a modern explosive known for its high performance and improved thermal stability.
-
Therefore, all three are explosives used in military weapons, making Option B the correct answer.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
| Option | Why Incorrect? |
|---|---|
| Alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants | These chemicals are not refrigerants. |
| Explosives in military weapons | Correct. ✅ |
| High-energy fuels for cruise missiles | They are explosives, not fuels. |
| Fuels for rocket propulsion | Rocket fuels and explosives are different categories of energetic materials. |
Consider the following substances:
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
Detailed Explanation:
Coal gasification converts coal into syngas (mainly carbon monoxide and hydrogen), which serves as a raw material for many chemicals.
-
I. Ethanol ✅ Correct – Syngas can be converted into ethanol through chemical or biological processes.
-
II. Nitroglycerine ❌ Incorrect – Nitroglycerine is produced by nitrating glycerol, not from syngas obtained through coal gasification.
-
III. Urea ✅ Correct – Hydrogen from syngas is used to make ammonia, which then reacts with carbon dioxide to produce urea.
-
Therefore, only Ethanol and Urea can be produced using coal gasification technology, making Option B the correct answer.
Substance-wise Analysis
| Substance | Produced Using Coal Gasification? | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| Ethanol | ✅ Yes | Syngas can be converted into ethanol. |
| Nitroglycerine | ❌ No | Produced from glycerol through nitration. |
| Urea | ✅ Yes | Made using ammonia and carbon dioxide derived from gasification products. |
Coal Gasification
What is Coal Gasification?
Coal gasification is the process of converting coal into syngas, a mixture of:
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Carbon Monoxide (CO)
-
Hydrogen (H₂)
-
Carbon Dioxide (CO₂)
-
Water Vapour
Major Products from Syngas
-
Ammonia
-
Urea
-
Methanol
-
Ethanol
-
Synthetic Natural Gas (SNG)
-
Hydrogen
Important Facts
-
Coal gasification helps reduce dependence on imported natural gas and crude oil.
-
It is an important technology for producing fertilizers and industrial chemicals.
-
India is promoting coal gasification to utilize its large domestic coal reserves.
With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-made proteins designed to recognize and bind to a specific antigen.
-
Statement I is Correct: They are man-made proteins produced in laboratories.
-
Statement II is Correct: They bind to specific antigens and help the immune system identify or neutralize harmful pathogens.
-
Statement III is Correct: Monoclonal antibodies are used in treating and preventing certain viral infections, including the Nipah virus.
-
Therefore, all three statements are correct, making Option D the correct answer.
Statement-wise Analysis
| Statement | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. They are man-made proteins | ✅ Correct | Produced in laboratories from cloned immune cells. |
| II. They bind to specific antigens | ✅ Correct | Their high specificity helps target viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells. |
| III. Used against Nipah virus | ✅ Correct | Monoclonal antibodies have been developed and tested for Nipah virus treatment. |
Notes: Monoclonal Antibodies (mAbs)
What are Monoclonal Antibodies?
Monoclonal antibodies are identical laboratory-produced antibodies designed to target a specific antigen.
How do they work?
-
Bind to a specific antigen.
-
Block pathogens from infecting cells.
-
Help the immune system destroy infected or abnormal cells.
Major Uses
-
Cancer treatment
-
Autoimmune diseases
-
Viral infections (COVID-19, Ebola, Nipah)
-
Diagnostic tests
Important Facts
-
Developed using a single clone of immune cells, hence the term "monoclonal."
-
They are highly specific compared to conventional drugs.
-
Widely used in modern biotechnology and precision medicine.
Consider the following types of vehicles:
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative (powertrain) vehicles?
Detailed Explanation:
Alternative powertrain vehicles are vehicles that do not rely on conventional petrol or diesel internal combustion engines as their primary source of propulsion.
-
Statement I is Correct: Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) run entirely on electricity stored in batteries.
-
Statement II is Correct: Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCEVs) generate electricity from hydrogen using fuel cells.
-
Statement III is Correct: Fuel Cell Electric Hybrid Vehicles (FCEHVs) combine fuel cells, batteries, and electric motors.
-
Therefore, all three are considered alternative powertrain vehicles, making Option C the correct answer.
Vehicle-wise Analysis
| Vehicle Type | Alternative Powertrain? | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| Full Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV) | ✅ Yes | Powered solely by batteries and electric motors. |
| Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicle (FCEV) | ✅ Yes | Uses hydrogen fuel cells to generate electricity. |
| Fuel Cell Electric Hybrid Vehicle (FCEHV) | ✅ Yes | Combines hydrogen fuel cells with battery storage. |
Alternative Powertrain Vehicles
What are Alternative Powertrains?
These are vehicle propulsion systems that use alternatives to conventional petrol or diesel engines.
Major Types
| Type | Energy Source |
|---|---|
| BEV | Battery Electricity |
| FCEV | Hydrogen Fuel Cell |
| FCEHV | Hydrogen Fuel Cell + Battery |
| HEV | Fuel + Electric Motor |
| PHEV | Plug-in Battery + Fuel Engine |
Important Facts
-
BEVs produce zero tailpipe emissions.
-
FCEVs emit only water vapor as a by-product.
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Hydrogen-based vehicles are considered important for long-range and heavy-duty transport.
-
Alternative powertrains help reduce dependence on fossil fuels and lower carbon emissions.
With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The capabilities of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) depend on their design (fixed-wing, multirotor, hybrid, etc.). Therefore, the word "All" makes all three statements incorrect.
-
Statement I is Incorrect: Not all UAVs can perform vertical landing. Fixed-wing UAVs require a runway or launcher/recovery system.
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Statement II is Incorrect: Not all UAVs can hover. Fixed-wing UAVs must keep moving forward to stay airborne.
-
Statement III is Incorrect: Not all UAVs use battery power only. Many UAVs use fuel engines, hybrid systems, or even solar power.
-
Therefore, none of the statements are correct, making Option D the correct answer.
Statement-wise Analysis
| Statement | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. All UAVs can do vertical landing | ❌ Incorrect | Only VTOL and multirotor UAVs can land vertically. |
| II. All UAVs can do automated hovering | ❌ Incorrect | Fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover. |
| III. All UAVs use battery only | ❌ Incorrect | UAVs may use fuel, hybrid, solar, or battery power. |
Types of UAVs
| Type | Hovering | Vertical Take-off/Landing | Power Source |
|---|---|---|---|
| Fixed-Wing | ❌ No | ❌ No | Fuel, Battery, Hybrid |
| Multirotor | ✅ Yes | ✅ Yes | Mostly Battery |
| VTOL Hybrid | ✅ Yes | ✅ Yes | Battery, Fuel, Hybrid |
Important Facts
-
Fixed-wing UAVs are preferred for long-range surveillance and mapping.
-
Multirotor drones are ideal for photography, monitoring, and inspection.
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Hybrid UAVs combine the advantages of fixed-wing and multirotor systems.
-
Modern UAVs can be powered by batteries, internal combustion engines, hydrogen fuel cells, or solar energy.
Consider the following statements:
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The Majorana 1 chip is a breakthrough quantum computing chip developed by Microsoft and is expected to accelerate the development of fault-tolerant quantum computers.
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Statement I is Correct: Majorana 1 is designed to support the future of quantum computing.
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Statement II is Incorrect: The chip was introduced by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services (AWS).
-
Statement III is Correct: Deep Learning is a specialized subset of Machine Learning that uses multi-layered neural networks.
-
Therefore, only Statements I and III are correct, making Option C the correct answer.
Statement-wise Analysis
| Statement | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing | ✅ Correct | It is designed to support scalable and fault-tolerant quantum computers. |
| II. Introduced by AWS | ❌ Incorrect | Majorana 1 was developed by Microsoft. |
| III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning | ✅ Correct | Deep learning is an advanced branch of machine learning using neural networks. |
Majorana 1 Chip
What is Majorana 1?
Majorana 1 is Microsoft's quantum computing chip based on topological qubits, which aim to reduce errors and improve quantum stability.
Why is it important?
-
Helps build scalable quantum computers.
-
Uses Majorana particles (theoretical quasiparticles) for more reliable qubits.
-
Expected to solve complex problems beyond the capability of classical computers.
Potential Applications
-
Drug discovery
-
Material science
-
Climate modelling
-
Cryptography
-
Artificial Intelligence
Machine Learning vs Deep Learning
| Machine Learning | Deep Learning |
|---|---|
| Broad field of AI | Subset of Machine Learning |
| Often requires manual feature selection | Learns features automatically |
| Works well with smaller datasets | Performs best with large datasets |
| Simpler models | Uses multi-layer neural networks |
Consider the following statements:
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
All three statements are incorrect because viruses are found in diverse environments, can infect bacteria, and can manipulate host cell functions.
-
Statement I is Incorrect: Viruses are extremely abundant in oceans and play an important role in marine ecosystems.
-
Statement II is Incorrect: Certain viruses called bacteriophages specifically infect bacteria.
-
Statement III is Incorrect: Viruses can alter the host cell's transcriptional machinery to produce viral proteins and replicate themselves.
-
Therefore, none of the statements are correct, making Option D the correct answer.
Statement-wise Analysis
| Statement | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. No virus can survive in ocean waters | ❌ Incorrect | Oceans contain billions of viruses and are one of the largest viral reservoirs on Earth. |
| II. No virus can infect bacteria | ❌ Incorrect | Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. |
| III. No virus can change cellular transcriptional activity | ❌ Incorrect | Viruses frequently modify host gene expression to support their replication. |
Viruses
What are Viruses?
Viruses are microscopic infectious agents that can reproduce only inside living host cells.
Important Facts
-
Found in soil, air, freshwater, oceans, and living organisms.
-
Cannot reproduce independently.
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Use host cell machinery to make new viruses.
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Can infect animals, plants, fungi, and bacteria.
Bacteriophages
-
Viruses that infect bacteria.
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Among the most abundant biological entities on Earth.
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Widely used in biotechnology and phage therapy research.
How Viruses Affect Host Cells
Viruses can:
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Alter gene expression.
-
Hijack cellular machinery.
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Suppress immune responses.
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Change transcription and protein synthesis pathways.
With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:
Aircraft type – Description
I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III: Military transport aircraft
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Among the three pairs, Dornier-228 and C-17 Globemaster III are correctly matched with their roles, while IL-76 is incorrectly described.
-
Pair I is Correct: Dornier-228 is used for maritime patrol, surveillance, and reconnaissance missions.
-
Pair II is Incorrect: IL-76 is a heavy military transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft.
-
Pair III is Correct: C-17 Globemaster III is a strategic military transport aircraft used for troop and cargo movement.
-
Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched, making Option B the correct answer.
Pair-wise Analysis
| Pair | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft | ✅ Correct | Operated by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime surveillance and patrol. |
| II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft | ❌ Incorrect | IL-76 is a heavy-lift transport aircraft, not a combat aircraft. |
| III. C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft | ✅ Correct | Used by the Indian Air Force for strategic airlift operations. |
Important Transport Aircraft of India
Dornier-228
-
Twin-engine utility aircraft.
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Used for maritime patrol, surveillance, search and rescue.
-
Operated by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard.
IL-76
-
Heavy strategic transport aircraft of Russian origin.
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Used for troop transport, cargo movement, and humanitarian missions.
-
Also serves as a platform for AWACS variants.
C-17 Globemaster III
-
Strategic military transport aircraft manufactured by Boeing.
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Can carry troops, tanks, helicopters, and heavy equipment.
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Backbone of India's long-range airlift capability.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Rare Earth Elements (REEs) such as Europium, Terbium, and Yttrium are widely used in modern display technologies.
-
Statement I is Correct: Some rare earth elements are used in flat TV screens and computer monitors.
-
Statement II is Correct: These elements possess phosphorescent properties, meaning they can absorb energy and emit light.
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Statement II explains Statement I because these phosphorescent properties help produce bright, vibrant, and accurate colors in display screens.
-
Therefore, Option A is the correct answer.
Statement-wise Analysis
| Statement | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| Statement I: REEs are used in flat TV screens and monitors | ✅ Correct | Europium, Terbium, and Yttrium are used in display technologies for color generation. |
| Statement II: Some REEs have phosphorescent properties | ✅ Correct | These elements can emit visible light after absorbing energy. |
| Relationship | ✅ Correct | Phosphorescence is the reason REEs are valuable in screens and monitors. |
Rare Earth Elements (REEs)
What are Rare Earth Elements?
Rare Earth Elements are a group of 17 metallic elements consisting of:
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15 Lanthanides
-
Scandium
-
Yttrium
Important Applications
-
Flat-screen TVs and monitors
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Smartphones
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Electric Vehicles (EVs)
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Wind turbines
-
Defence equipment
-
Medical imaging devices
Phosphorescence
Phosphorescence is the ability of a material to:
-
Absorb energy
-
Store it temporarily
-
Emit light gradually
This property helps create:
-
Bright displays
-
High color accuracy
-
Better screen efficiency
Important REEs Used in Displays
| Element | Use |
|---|---|
| Europium | Red color phosphors |
| Terbium | Green color phosphors |
| Yttrium | Display and LED phosphors |
GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation.
Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
GAGAN (GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) is India's Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS), jointly developed by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India (AAI) to improve GPS-based navigation.
-
Statement I is Correct: GAGAN enhances the accuracy and integrity of GPS signals.
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Statement II is Correct: It enables safer, more efficient, and uniform air traffic management.
-
Statement III is Incorrect: GAGAN is useful not only in aviation but also in road transport, railways, maritime navigation, agriculture, surveying, and disaster management.
-
Therefore, only Statements I and II are correct, making Option D the correct answer.
Statement-wise Analysis
| Statement | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity | ✅ Correct | GAGAN improves GPS precision and reliability for navigation. |
| II. It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management | ✅ Correct | Better navigation helps improve flight safety and air traffic efficiency. |
| III. It will provide benefits only in aviation | ❌ Incorrect | Its applications extend to several non-aviation sectors as well. |
Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028.
II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The question asks for the statements that are not correct.
-
Statement I is Incorrect: The National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to create a future-ready railway system by 2030, not 2028.
-
Statement II is Incorrect: Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system developed under the Make in India initiative, not in collaboration with Germany.
-
Statement III is Correct: Kavach uses RFID tags fitted on tracks and station sections to continuously monitor train location and movement.
-
Therefore, Statements I and II are not correct, making Option A the correct answer.
Statement-wise Analysis
| Statement | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. NRP aims for a future-ready railway system by 2028 | ❌ Incorrect | The target year is 2030, not 2028. |
| II. Kavach was developed with Germany | ❌ Incorrect | Kavach is an indigenously developed Indian system. |
| III. Kavach uses RFID tags on tracks | ✅ Correct | RFID tags help identify train location and improve safety. |
Kavach System
What is Kavach?
-
Kavach is India's indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system.
-
Developed under the Make in India initiative by Indian Railways.
-
Designed to prevent train collisions and improve railway safety.
Key Features
-
Automatic braking if the driver fails to respond.
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Prevents Signal Passed At Danger (SPAD).
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Real-time train location monitoring.
-
Uses RFID tags, radio communication, and onboard equipment.
National Rail Plan (NRP)
-
Released by Indian Railways.
-
Vision to create a future-ready railway network by 2030.
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Focuses on capacity enhancement, freight share increase, and modernization.
Consider the following space missions:
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
Detailed Explanation:
Among the given missions, Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan directly support and promote micro-gravity research, whereas SpaDeX is mainly a technology demonstration mission.
-
Statement I is Correct: Axiom-4 carries scientific experiments and micro-gravity research payloads aboard the International Space Station (ISS).
-
Statement II is Incorrect: SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) is designed to demonstrate autonomous docking technology, not primarily for micro-gravity research.
-
Statement III is Correct: Gaganyaan includes several micro-gravity experiments to be conducted by Indian astronauts (Vyomanauts) in space.
-
Therefore, only two missions support micro-gravity research, making Option B the correct answer.
Mission-wise Analysis
| Mission | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. Axiom-4 | ✅ Correct | Conducts scientific and micro-gravity experiments aboard the ISS. |
| II. SpaDeX | ❌ Incorrect | Primarily a space docking technology demonstration mission. |
| III. Gaganyaan | ✅ Correct | Includes micro-gravity research payloads and experiments. |
Micro-gravity Research
What is Micro-gravity?
Micro-gravity is a condition in space where objects experience very weak gravity and appear to be weightless.
Why is it Important?
Micro-gravity helps scientists study:
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Human health in space
-
Material science
-
Biotechnology
-
Fluid dynamics
-
Plant growth and agriculture
Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy is known as the Father of Indian Renaissance. He respected India's ancient philosophical traditions while also advocating modern values.
-
Statement I is Correct: He had deep respect for Vedanta, Upanishads, and other Eastern philosophical traditions.
-
Statement II is Correct: He promoted rational thinking, scientific temper, human dignity, and equality of men and women.
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He worked against social evils such as Sati and supported women's rights and modern education.
-
Therefore, both statements are correct, making Option C the correct answer.
Statement-wise Analysis
| Statement | Status | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| I. He respected traditional Eastern philosophical systems | ✅ Correct | He drew inspiration from Vedanta and the Upanishads while advocating reforms. |
| II. He promoted rationalism, scientific thinking, and equality | ✅ Correct | He supported modern education, social reform, and gender equality. |
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Who was Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
-
Known as the Father of Indian Renaissance.
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Founder of the Brahmo Sabha (1828), later known as Brahmo Samaj.
-
One of the earliest social and religious reformers in modern India.
Major Contributions
-
Led the movement against Sati Pratha.
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Advocated women's rights and widow remarriage.
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Promoted modern Western education and scientific learning.
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Supported freedom of the press and constitutional governance.
Important Fact
-
His efforts contributed to the abolition of Sati through the Bengal Sati Regulation Act, 1829 under Governor-General Lord William Bentinck.
Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
- The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
- It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: At the Nagpur Session (1920), the Indian National Congress adopted 'Swaraj' through legitimate and peaceful means as its objective.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement was planned in phases. If Swaraj was not achieved and the government became repressive, the movement could advance to civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes.
Therefore, both statements are correct.
📝 Short Notes: Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22)
What was the Non-Cooperation Movement?
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Launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 against British rule.
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It combined the issues of Khilafat Movement and Punjab atrocities (Jallianwala Bagh) with the demand for Swaraj.
Major Programmes
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Boycott of government schools, colleges, courts, and elections.
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Surrender of titles and honours.
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Boycott of foreign goods and promotion of Swadeshi.
Why was it withdrawn?
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Withdrawn in 1922 after the Chauri Chaura Incident, where a violent clash led to the death of policemen.
Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
Detailed Explanation:
The Non-Cooperation Programme (1920) aimed to weaken British rule through boycott, non-violence, and self-reliance.
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Statement I is Correct: Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth was an important part of the programme.
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Statement II is Correct: Strict non-violence was the foundation of the movement.
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Statement III is Incorrect: People were asked to surrender British titles and honours, not retain them.
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Statement IV is Correct: Panchayats were encouraged to settle disputes outside British courts.
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Therefore, Statements I, II and IV are correct, making Option C the correct answer.
📝 Short Notes: Non-Cooperation Programme (1920)
Main Objectives
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Achieve Swaraj through peaceful and non-violent means.
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Withdraw cooperation from British institutions.
Major Components
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Boycott of schools, colleges, courts, and elections.
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Boycott of foreign cloth and promotion of Khadi.
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Surrender of titles and honours.
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Establishment of national educational institutions and Panchayats.
Important Fact
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The movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi and became the first mass movement of the Indian freedom struggle.
Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?
Detailed Explanation:
Simple Explanation:
-
Mahatma Gandhi strongly opposed untouchability and the British proposal of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes under the Communal Award (1932).
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After the Poona Pact (1932) between Mahatma Gandhi and B. R. Ambedkar, Gandhi made the upliftment of Harijans (Depressed Classes) a major part of his social and political programme.
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He later established the Harijan Sevak Sangh and started the journal Harijan to fight untouchability.
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Therefore, Option A is the correct answer.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect
| Option | Why Incorrect |
|---|---|
| Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (1931) | Related to the Civil Disobedience Movement, not Harijan upliftment. |
| Quit India Movement arrests (1942) | Occurred much later and had no connection with the beginning of Gandhi's Harijan campaign. |
| Government of India Act, 1935 | Concerned constitutional reforms, not the launch of Gandhi's anti-untouchability programme. |
📝 Short Notes: Poona Pact (1932)
What was the Poona Pact?
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Signed on 24 September 1932 between Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
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Replaced the proposal of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes with reserved seats in joint electorates.
Importance
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Ended Gandhi's fast unto death in Yerwada Jail.
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Increased political representation of Depressed Classes.
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Marked the beginning of Gandhi's intensive campaign against untouchability.
Important Fact
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Gandhi began referring to the Depressed Classes as "Harijans" (Children of God) and launched nationwide social reform campaigns.
UPSC Prelims 2025 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Indian Polity
18 Qs (18%)Indian Economy
16 Qs (16%)Science & Technology
14 Qs (14%)Environment & Ecology
13 Qs (13%)World Geography
12 Qs (12%)Modern History
8 Qs (8%)International Relations
7 Qs (7%)Ancient History
6 Qs (6%)Current Affairs
4 Qs (4%)Medieval History
1 Qs (1%)Indian Art & Culture
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2025?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2025?
- Indian Polity: 18 questions (18%)
- Indian Economy: 16 questions (16%)
- Science & Technology: 14 questions (14%)
- Environment & Ecology: 13 questions (13%)
- World Geography: 12 questions (12%)
- Modern History: 8 questions (8%)
- International Relations: 7 questions (7%)
- Ancient History: 6 questions (6%)
- Current Affairs: 4 questions (4%)
- Medieval History: 1 questions (1%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 1 questions (1%)