UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2024 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
- Konkani
- Manipuri
- Nepali
- Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1, 2 and 3
The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added three languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution: Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. This brought the total number of scheduled languages from 15 to 18. Maithili was not part of this amendment; it was added later through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003, along with Bodo, Dogri, and Santhali.
📝 Short Notes: Eighth Schedule and Amendment of Languages
- Eighth Schedule Overview: The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains the list of official languages recognized by India. Originally, it included 14 languages when the Constitution came into force in 1950. These languages enjoy constitutional recognition, government support for development, and can be used in parliamentary proceedings and competitive examinations.
- 21st Amendment Act, 1967: This was the first amendment to the Eighth Schedule, adding Sindhi as the 15th language to recognize the linguistic identity of the Sindhi-speaking community displaced during partition.
- 71st Amendment Act, 1992: Added three languages - Konkani (spoken in Goa and neighboring states), Manipuri or Meitei (official language of Manipur), and Nepali (spoken in Sikkim, Darjeeling, and parts of Northeast India) - increasing the total to 18 languages.
- 92nd Amendment Act, 2003: Added four languages - Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali - bringing the current total to 22 scheduled languages, recognizing India's vast linguistic diversity.
- Significance of Scheduled Languages: Languages in the Eighth Schedule are entitled to representation on official language commissions, can be used in UPSC and other competitive examinations, and receive government support for their development and promotion.
- Classical Languages: Six languages have been accorded 'Classical Language' status separately - Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). This status is distinct from scheduled language status and recognizes ancient literary heritage.
- Criteria for Inclusion: Though no fixed constitutional criterion exists, languages with significant number of speakers, rich literary tradition, and cultural significance are generally considered. Several languages including Tulu, Bhojpuri, and Rajasthani have ongoing demands for inclusion.
- Constitutional Provisions: Article 344 provides for the Constitution of a Commission and a Committee of Parliament on official languages. Article 351 directs the Union to promote Hindi and draw upon Sanskrit and other Eighth Schedule languages for its enrichment.
| Amendment Act | Year | Languages Added | Total Languages |
|---|---|---|---|
| Original Constitution | 1950 | Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu | 14 |
| 21st Amendment | 1967 | Sindhi | 15 |
| 71st Amendment | 1992 | Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali | 18 |
| 92nd Amendment | 2003 | Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali | 22 |
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
- Addition
- Variation
- Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides Parliament with comprehensive powers to amend the Constitution through three distinct methods: addition (inserting new provisions), variation (modifying existing provisions), and repeal (removing provisions). This flexibility ensures the Constitution remains a living document capable of adapting to changing social, political, and economic needs while maintaining constitutional continuity.
✅ Statement 1 (Addition) – Correct: Parliament can add new provisions to the Constitution, such as the insertion of Article 15(5) through the 93rd Amendment Act, 2005, allowing reservations in educational institutions.
✅ Statement 2 (Variation) – Correct: Parliament can modify existing constitutional provisions, as demonstrated by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, which altered the Preamble and various other articles.
✅ Statement 3 (Repeal) – Correct: Parliament can remove constitutional provisions entirely, exemplified by the 26th Amendment Act, 1971, which abolished privy purses for former rulers of princely states.
📝 Short Notes: Constitutional Amendment Powers under Article 368
- Article 368: Provides the procedure and power to Parliament to amend any provision of the Constitution, making it neither too rigid nor too flexible.
- Three Methods of Amendment: Addition (inserting new articles/clauses), Variation (modifying existing provisions), and Repeal (removing provisions completely).
- Amending Process: Requires a special majority (majority of total membership + 2/3rd of members present and voting) in both Houses of Parliament; some amendments also require ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
- Basic Structure Doctrine: Established in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), limiting Parliament's amending power—certain fundamental features cannot be altered or destroyed.
- Types of Amendments: Simple majority amendments (e.g., creation/abolition of states), special majority amendments (most provisions), and special majority plus state ratification (federal provisions, representation, etc.).
- Notable Amendments: 42nd Amendment (Mini-Constitution), 44th Amendment (restored some rights curtailed during Emergency), 73rd & 74th Amendments (local self-governance), 101st Amendment (GST).
| Amendment Type | Majority Required | State Ratification | Examples |
|---|---|---|---|
| Simple Majority | Majority of members present and voting | Not Required | Creation of new states, citizenship provisions |
| Special Majority | Majority of total membership + 2/3rd present and voting | Not Required | Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles |
| Special Majority + State Ratification | Special Majority in Parliament | At least half of states must ratify | Election of President, Union-State distribution of powers, representation in Parliament |
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
A Writ of Prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from continuing proceedings in a case where it lacks jurisdiction or is acting contrary to law. It is a preventive remedy, stopping the lower court from exceeding its authority before a final decision is made.
📝 Short Notes: Writ of Prohibition
- Definition: A judicial order issued by higher courts (Supreme Court or High Courts) to lower courts or tribunals to stop proceedings in a case where the lower court is exceeding its jurisdiction.
- Nature: It is a preventive writ, meaning it stops the proceedings before the lower court makes a decision, unlike Certiorari which is issued after a decision.
- Constitutional Basis: Under Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article 226 (High Courts), writs including Prohibition can be issued for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and other purposes.
- Scope: Applies only to judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, not to administrative authorities or legislative bodies.
- Purpose: To ensure that courts and tribunals operate within their legal jurisdiction and do not violate principles of natural justice.
- Comparison with other Writs: While Prohibition prevents future action, Certiorari quashes past decisions. Mandamus compels performance of duty, while Habeas Corpus relates to personal liberty.
- Example: If a civil court begins hearing a matter that legally falls under criminal jurisdiction, a Writ of Prohibition can halt the proceedings.
| Writ Type | Purpose | When Issued | Against Whom |
|---|---|---|---|
| Prohibition | Prevent excess of jurisdiction | Before judgment (preventive) | Lower courts/tribunals |
| Certiorari | Quash unlawful orders | After judgment (curative) | Lower courts/tribunals |
| Mandamus | Compel performance of duty | When duty is not performed | Public officials/bodies |
| Habeas Corpus | Protect personal liberty | Unlawful detention | Detaining authority |
| Quo Warranto | Check usurpation of office | Illegal occupation of office | Person holding office |
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With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :
- The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the President lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
- At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct regarding the Union Budget. The Constitution of India mandates that the President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before Parliament, which is done in practice by the Union Finance Minister. Additionally, no demand for a grant can be made at the Union level without the recommendation of the President, ensuring executive control over public expenditure.
✅ Statement 1 (Presentation of Budget) – Correct: Under Article 112, the President causes the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) to be laid before both Houses of Parliament, which is presented in practice by the Union Finance Minister on behalf of the President.
✅ Statement 2 (Demand for Grants) – Correct: Article 113(3) explicitly provides that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President of India, ensuring executive control over expenditure proposals from the Consolidated Fund of India.
📝 Short Notes: Union Budget and Financial Procedure
- Annual Financial Statement (Article 112): The President causes the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) to be laid before both Houses of Parliament for each financial year, showing estimated receipts and expenditure.
- Contents of Budget: The Budget distinguishes expenditure as (a) charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (non-votable), and (b) made from the Consolidated Fund of India (votable by Parliament).
- Demand for Grants (Article 113): Expenditure from the Consolidated Fund requires parliamentary approval through demands for grants. No such demand can be made without the President's recommendation.
- Appropriation Bill (Article 114): After grants are voted, the Appropriation Bill is introduced to authorize the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund to meet the approved expenditure.
- Finance Bill (Article 110): A Money Bill containing provisions for taxation and other financial matters is introduced to give effect to the financial proposals of the government.
- Vote on Account (Article 116): Parliament can make an advance grant for a part of the financial year pending the voting of the main budget demands.
- Guillotine: A procedural device where all remaining demands for grants are put to vote simultaneously on the last day allotted for discussion, ensuring budget passage within the stipulated time.
| Constitutional Provision | Article | Purpose | Parliamentary Action Required |
|---|---|---|---|
| Annual Financial Statement | Article 112 | Presentation of Budget estimates | Discussion (no voting) |
| Demand for Grants | Article 113 | Approval of expenditure | Voting required (on President's recommendation) |
| Appropriation Bill | Article 114 | Authorization to withdraw funds | Voting required |
| Finance Bill | Article 110 | Implementation of tax proposals | Voting required (Money Bill) |
| Vote on Account | Article 116 | Advance grant for part of year | Voting required |
| Charged Expenditure | Article 112(3) | Non-votable statutory payments | Discussion only (no voting) |
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
- He/She shall not preside.
- He/She shall not have the right to speak.
- He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
Article 96 of the Indian Constitution governs the conduct of the Speaker during the consideration of their removal resolution. The Speaker is barred from presiding over the House during such proceedings but retains all other rights as a member, including the right to speak and vote in the first instance.
✅ Statement 1 (Presiding Restriction) – Correct: Under Article 96(1), the Speaker shall not preside over the House while a resolution for their removal is under consideration, even if present.
❌ Statement 2 (Right to Speak) – Incorrect: Under Article 96(2), the Speaker retains the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the House during the consideration of the removal resolution.
❌ Statement 3 (Voting Rights) – Incorrect: According to Article 96(2), the Speaker is entitled to vote in the first instance on the resolution; they only lose the casting vote (second vote to break a tie) in this scenario.
📝 Short Notes: Speaker of Lok Sabha and Removal Process
- Election: The Speaker is elected by the members of Lok Sabha from amongst themselves, usually from the majority party, immediately after the constitution of a new House.
- Constitutional Provisions: Articles 93-96 deal with the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, including their election, removal, and powers.
- Removal Process: A resolution for removal requires 14 days' notice and must be passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (not just those present and voting).
- Presiding Restrictions (Article 96(1)): During the consideration of a removal resolution, the Speaker cannot preside but may remain present in the House.
- Member Rights (Article 96(2)): The Speaker retains the right to speak and participate in proceedings, and can vote in the first instance but not exercise a casting vote on their own removal resolution.
- Neutrality Expectation: After election, the Speaker is expected to sever ties with their political party and maintain impartiality in conducting House proceedings.
- Powers and Functions: The Speaker maintains order in the House, decides on questions of privilege, certifies Money Bills, and exercises various administrative and disciplinary powers.
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Provision | Articles 93-96 |
| Election Method | Elected by Lok Sabha members from amongst themselves |
| Removal Notice Period | 14 days |
| Removal Majority Required | Majority of all then members of the House |
| Presiding During Removal | Cannot preside (Article 96(1)) |
| Right to Speak During Removal | Yes, retained (Article 96(2)) |
| Voting Rights During Removal | Can vote in first instance, no casting vote (Article 96(2)) |
| Tenure | Usually continues for the full term of the House (5 years) |
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
- A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 2
When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, bills pending in the Lok Sabha and bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha automatically lapse. However, a bill in respect of which the President has notified his intention to summon a joint sitting does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, as the joint sitting mechanism continues to remain valid.
✅ Statement 1 (Bill pending in Lok Sabha) – Correct: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses automatically upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha as the dissolution terminates all pending legislative business in that House.
✅ Statement 2 (Bill passed by Lok Sabha, pending in Rajya Sabha) – Correct: A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, as it is considered a bill originating from the Lok Sabha.
❌ Statement 3 (Bill notified for joint sitting) – Incorrect: A bill in respect of which the President has notified his intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha and can be taken up in the joint sitting after the new Lok Sabha is constituted.
📝 Short Notes: Lapsing of Bills in Parliament
- Bills pending in Lok Sabha: All bills pending in the Lok Sabha lapse upon its dissolution, except those already passed and sent to the Rajya Sabha or those pending President's assent.
- Bills passed by Lok Sabha: Bills passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- Bills pending in Rajya Sabha only: Bills originating and pending only in the Rajya Sabha do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, as the Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
- Bills notified for joint sitting: Bills in respect of which the President has notified his intention to summon a joint sitting do not lapse and can be taken up in the joint sitting after reconstitution of the Lok Sabha.
- Bills pending President's assent: Bills that have been passed by both Houses and are pending the President's assent do not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- Constitutional Bills: Bills pending at any stage, including constitutional amendment bills, follow the same lapsing rules as ordinary bills.
- Rajya Sabha as permanent House: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is never dissolved, hence bills originating and remaining only in it do not lapse due to Lok Sabha's dissolution.
| Type of Bill | Stage | Effect of Lok Sabha Dissolution |
|---|---|---|
| Bill pending in Lok Sabha | Any stage in Lok Sabha | Lapses |
| Bill passed by Lok Sabha | Pending in Rajya Sabha | Lapses |
| Bill originating in Rajya Sabha | Pending only in Rajya Sabha | Does not lapse |
| Bill passed by both Houses | Pending President's assent | Does not lapse |
| Bill notified for joint sitting | After President's notification | Does not lapse |
| Bill returned by President | Pending reconsideration in Lok Sabha | Lapses |
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :
- Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
- Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 2 and 3
Prorogation and dissolution are two distinct powers exercised by the President of India concerning Parliament. While prorogation is typically done after adjournment sine die, the President can technically prorogue a House even during a session, and this power is exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The Lok Sabha's dissolution also requires the President to act on ministerial advice except in exceptional political circumstances.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Under Article 85(2), the President prorogues the Houses only on the advice of the Council of Ministers (specifically the Prime Minister or Cabinet), not independently.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Though prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, there is no constitutional bar preventing the President from proroguing a House while it is still in session.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in rare circumstances like a hung parliament, vote of no confidence, or constitutional crisis.
📝 Short Notes: Prorogation and Dissolution of Parliament
- Adjournment: Temporary suspension of a sitting of Parliament until the next meeting, decided by the presiding officer (Speaker/Chairman).
- Adjournment Sine Die: Indefinite adjournment without fixing a date for the next meeting; terminates a session but not formally.
- Prorogation: Formal termination of a session by the President under Article 85(2), done on the advice of the Council of Ministers; ends all pending business of committees but not bills pending before the House.
- Dissolution: Applies only to Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha; brings the entire House to an end, requiring fresh elections; all pending bills (except those pending in Rajya Sabha or joint sitting) lapse.
- Constitutional Provisions: Article 85 deals with sessions, prorogation, and dissolution; Article 352-360 deal with Emergency provisions that can affect parliamentary functioning.
- President's Role: The President summons, prorogues, and dissolves Parliament, but acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers as per Article 74.
- Exception to Ministerial Advice: In hung parliaments or political crises, the President may exercise discretion in dissolution matters, though this remains constitutionally debated.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II : Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
The Sumed pipeline is indeed a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe, serving as a vital alternative to the Suez Canal for large vessels. The pipeline connects the Red Sea (Ain Sokhna terminal) with the Mediterranean Sea (Sidi Kerir terminal near Alexandria), which is the geographical feature that enables it to function as a strategic transit bypass for European-bound energy shipments.
✅ Statement-I (Strategic route for Persian Gulf oil to Europe) – Correct: The Sumed pipeline serves as a critical alternative to the Suez Canal, particularly for Ultra Large Crude Carriers (ULCCs) that cannot navigate the canal fully loaded, making it strategically important for energy security to Europe.
✅ Statement-II (Connects Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea) – Correct: The pipeline runs from Ain Sokhna terminal on the Gulf of Suez (Red Sea) to Sidi Kerir terminal near Alexandria (Mediterranean Sea), physically connecting these two water bodies.
Statement-II explains Statement-I: The geographical connection between the Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea is precisely what makes the pipeline strategically valuable for transporting Persian Gulf oil to Europe, as it bypasses the Suez Canal route.
📝 Short Notes: Sumed Pipeline and Strategic Maritime Routes
- Sumed Pipeline (Suez-Mediterranean Pipeline): Constructed in 1977, it is a 320 km long pipeline with a capacity of approximately 2.34 million barrels per day, running parallel to the Suez Canal.
- Strategic Importance: Provides an alternative route for oil transportation when the Suez Canal is congested, closed, or when vessels are too large to transit the canal (draft restrictions).
- Route Details: Connects Ain Sokhna on the Red Sea coast to Sidi Kerir terminal near Alexandria on the Mediterranean coast, with two parallel lines of 42-inch diameter pipes.
- Operation: Crude oil from Persian Gulf tankers is offloaded at the Red Sea terminal, pumped through the pipeline, and reloaded onto tankers at the Mediterranean terminal for European markets.
- Ownership: Jointly owned by the Egyptian General Petroleum Corporation (EGPC), Saudi Aramco, Abu Dhabi National Oil Company (ADNOC), and Kuwait Petroleum Corporation.
- Comparison with Suez Canal: While the Suez Canal handles larger volumes and diverse cargo, the Sumed pipeline specifically handles crude oil and serves as backup infrastructure for energy security.
- Global Energy Security: Forms part of critical global energy infrastructure alongside other strategic chokepoints like the Strait of Hormuz, Strait of Malacca, and Bab el-Mandeb Strait.
Consider the following statements :
- The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
- No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
The Red Sea is located in an arid desert region characterized by extremely high temperatures and low humidity, resulting in minimal precipitation. Additionally, no major rivers flow into the Red Sea; its water primarily comes from the inflow of saltier water from the Gulf of Aden through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.
✅ Statement 1 (Low Precipitation) – Correct: The Red Sea receives very little precipitation due to its location in a desert region with high temperatures and low humidity.
✅ Statement 2 (No River Inflow) – Correct: No major rivers flow into the Red Sea; water enters primarily from the Gulf of Aden through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.
📝 Short Notes: Red Sea - Oceanographic Features
- Location: The Red Sea is a seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa (Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti) and Asia (Saudi Arabia, Yemen), connected to the Arabian Sea via the Gulf of Aden through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.
- Climate: Located in an arid desert belt with extremely high temperatures, low humidity, and minimal rainfall (less than 100 mm annually), making it one of the driest regions globally.
- River Inflow: Unlike most seas, the Red Sea has no significant river drainage into it, which is a unique oceanographic characteristic contributing to its high salinity.
- High Salinity: The Red Sea has one of the highest salinities among world oceans (around 40-41 ppt) due to high evaporation rates, low precipitation, and absence of freshwater inflow from rivers.
- Water Exchange: Water enters from the Gulf of Aden (saltier, denser water) and exits as surface water, creating a unique circulation pattern that maintains the Red Sea's salinity and temperature.
- Temperature: Surface water temperatures range from 20°C in winter to over 30°C in summer, making it one of the warmest seas in the world.
- Strategic Importance: The Red Sea is crucial for international maritime trade as it connects to the Suez Canal in the north, serving as a vital shipping route between Europe and Asia.
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between :
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Canada and the United States of America
The border between Canada and the United States is the longest international border in the world, stretching approximately 8,891 kilometers (5,525 miles), including the border shared with Alaska. It is a peaceful, mostly undefended boundary that includes both land and water segments, exemplifying one of the most stable and cooperative international relationships in modern history.
📝 Short Notes: Longest International Borders in the World
| Rank | Countries | Length (Approx.) | Key Features |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Canada – United States | 8,891 km (5,525 miles) | Longest international border; includes Alaska border; peaceful and mostly undefended; comprises land and water segments |
| 2 | Kazakhstan – Russia | 7,644 km | Second longest border; passes through vast steppes; important for trade and natural resources; largely flat terrain |
| 3 | Chile – Argentina | 5,308 km | Longest border in South America; follows the Andes mountain range; includes several high-altitude crossings |
| 4 | China – Mongolia | 4,677 km | Fourth longest; crosses through Gobi Desert and grasslands |
| 5 | China – India | 3,488 km | Highly disputed in areas like Aksai Chin and Arunachal Pradesh; source of occasional tensions between the two nations |
- Canada-US Border Characteristics: The border runs through diverse terrain including forests, mountains, lakes, and rivers; it includes the Great Lakes and crosses through remote wilderness areas.
- Peace and Cooperation: The Canada-US border is often cited as the world's longest undefended border, symbolizing peaceful coexistence and strong bilateral relations.
- Historical Context: Established through various treaties including the Treaty of Paris (1783) and the Oregon Treaty (1846).
Consider the following countries :
- Italy
- Japan
- Nigeria
- South Korea
- South Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1, 2 and 4
Italy, Japan, and South Korea are frequently mentioned in global media for their extremely low fertility rates, rapidly ageing populations, and projected population declines. These countries face significant demographic challenges including shrinking workforces, increased healthcare costs, and pension sustainability issues.
Nigeria has a very young and rapidly growing population, while South Africa's population growth has slowed but is not yet declining. Neither country is characterized by low birth rates or ageing population concerns that dominate discussions about Italy, Japan, and South Korea.
📝 Short Notes: Global Demographic Trends and Population Ageing
| Country | Demographic Status | Key Features |
|---|---|---|
| Japan | Super-aged society | One of the world's oldest populations; fertility rate ~1.3; over 28% population above 65 years; population declining since 2011 |
| Italy | Rapidly ageing | Fertility rate ~1.2-1.3; median age over 47 years; one of Europe's oldest populations; facing labour shortage |
| South Korea | Lowest fertility globally | Fertility rate dropped to ~0.7-0.8 (lowest in world); population projected to halve by 2100; government implementing pro-natalist policies |
| Nigeria | Young and growing | Fertility rate ~5.3; median age ~18 years; fastest growing population in Africa; projected to be 3rd most populous by 2050 |
| South Africa | Moderate growth | Fertility rate ~2.3; relatively young population; growth slowing but not declining; HIV/AIDS impact on demographics |
- Demographic Dividend vs Demographic Burden: Countries with young populations (Nigeria) potentially benefit from demographic dividend, while ageing societies face economic burdens from increased dependency ratios.
- Economic Implications: Low birth rates lead to shrinking workforces, reduced consumption, decreased tax revenues, and challenges in sustaining pension and healthcare systems.
- Policy Responses: Japan, Italy, and South Korea have implemented various measures including childcare support, parental leave policies, immigration reforms, and automation to address demographic challenges.
Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?.
- The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
- The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
In January (Northern Hemisphere winter), continents cool down faster than oceans due to differential heating. This causes isotherms to deviate northward over the warmer oceans and southward over the colder continents. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm ocean currents, not cold, and they actually make the North Atlantic warmer, causing isotherms to bend northward.
✅ Statement 1 (Isotherm Deviation) – Correct: In January, isotherms deviate northward over oceans (which remain warmer) and southward over continents (which are colder) in the Northern Hemisphere due to differential heating and cooling rates of land and water.
❌ Statement 2 (Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift) – Incorrect: The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm ocean currents, not cold; they carry warm tropical water northward, making the North Atlantic relatively warmer and causing isotherms to bend northward, not making it colder.
📝 Short Notes: Isotherms and Ocean Currents
- Isotherms: Lines on a map connecting points of equal temperature, used to understand temperature distribution patterns across different regions and seasons.
- January Isotherm Pattern (Northern Hemisphere): During winter, continents are colder than oceans because land loses heat faster than water. Isotherms bend equatorward (southward) over continents and poleward (northward) over oceans.
- July Isotherm Pattern (Northern Hemisphere): During summer, continents are warmer than oceans. Isotherms bend poleward (northward) over continents and equatorward (southward) over oceans.
- Gulf Stream: A powerful warm ocean current originating in the Gulf of Mexico, flowing along the eastern coast of North America and across the Atlantic towards Europe, significantly warming Western Europe's climate.
- North Atlantic Drift: The extension of the Gulf Stream that continues eastward across the North Atlantic, bringing warm water and mild temperatures to Northwestern Europe, including the British Isles and Scandinavia.
- Effect of Ocean Currents on Isotherms: Warm currents like the Gulf Stream cause isotherms to bend poleward (northward in Northern Hemisphere), while cold currents like the Labrador Current cause isotherms to bend equatorward (southward in Northern Hemisphere).
- Differential Heating: Water has a higher specific heat capacity than land, meaning oceans heat up and cool down more slowly than continents, creating seasonal temperature contrasts that influence isotherm patterns.
Consider the following information:
| Waterfall | Region | River |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Dhuandhar | Malwa | Narmada |
| 2. Hundru | Chota Nagpur | Subarnarekha |
| 3. Gersoppa | Western Ghats | Netravati |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
This question tests the correct matching of waterfalls with their regions and rivers. Out of the three pairs given, two are correctly matched while one contains an error in the river name.
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Dhuandhar waterfall is located on the Narmada River in the Malwa region (Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh).
✅ Pair 2 – Correct: Hundru waterfall is located on the Subarnarekha River in the Chota Nagpur Plateau region (Jharkhand).
❌ Pair 3 – Incorrect: Gersoppa (Jog Falls) is located on the Sharavati River in the Western Ghats, not on the Netravati River.
📝 Short Notes: Major Waterfalls of India
| Waterfall | State | River | Height (approx.) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Jog Falls (Gersoppa) | Karnataka | Sharavati | 253 m (highest in India) |
| Dhuandhar Falls | Madhya Pradesh | Narmada | 30 m |
| Hundru Falls | Jharkhand | Subarnarekha | 98 m |
| Chitrakoot Falls | Chhattisgarh | Indravati | 29 m (widest in India) |
| Athirappilly Falls | Kerala | Chalakudy | 24 m |
| Nohkalikai Falls | Meghalaya | - | 340 m (tallest plunge waterfall) |
| Dudhsagar Falls | Goa | Mandovi | 310 m |
Consider the following:
- Pyroclastic debris
- Ash and dust
- Nitrogen compounds
- Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — All four
All four items listed—pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, nitrogen compounds, and sulphur compounds—are products of volcanic eruptions. Volcanic eruptions release both solid materials (pyroclastic debris, ash) and various gases (nitrogen and sulphur compounds) that can have significant environmental impacts.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Pyroclastic debris includes fragmental materials like ash, pumice, cinders, and volcanic bombs ejected during eruptions.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Ash and dust are fine-grained particles of volcanic rock and glass produced during explosive volcanic activity.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Nitrogen compounds such as ammonia (NH₃) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) are released from volcanic gases.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Sulphur compounds, particularly sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and hydrogen sulphide (H₂S), are major volcanic gases.
📝 Short Notes: Products of Volcanic Eruptions
| Product Type | Examples | Characteristics |
|---|---|---|
| Pyroclastic Materials | Volcanic bombs, lapilli, ash, pumice, scoria | Solid fragments ejected during eruptions; size ranges from fine ash to large bombs |
| Volcanic Gases | Water vapor (H₂O), CO₂, SO₂, H₂S, HCl, HF | Water vapor constitutes 60-90% of volcanic gases; SO₂ contributes to acid rain |
| Nitrogen Compounds | N₂, NH₃, nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) | Released in smaller quantities; can react in atmosphere to form various compounds |
| Sulphur Compounds | SO₂, H₂S, elemental sulphur | SO₂ is a major volcanic gas causing respiratory issues and environmental impacts |
- Environmental Impact: Volcanic ash can disrupt air travel, damage crops, and contaminate water supplies; sulphur dioxide contributes to acid rain and can affect global climate by forming aerosols in the stratosphere.
- Tephra: General term for all pyroclastic material ejected during an eruption, regardless of size or composition.
- Volcanic Winter: Large eruptions releasing significant ash and SO₂ can block sunlight, temporarily cooling the Earth's surface.
- Health Hazards: Fine volcanic ash can cause respiratory problems; gases like SO₂ and H₂S are toxic in high concentrations.
Consider the following countries :
- Finland
- Germany
- Norway
- Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
Among the four countries listed, only Germany and Norway have a border with the North Sea. Finland borders the Baltic Sea and the Gulf of Bothnia, while Russia's European coastline touches the Baltic Sea, Black Sea, and Arctic Ocean, but not the North Sea.
✅ Germany – Correct: Germany has a northern coastline along the North Sea, with major ports like Hamburg and Bremerhaven.
✅ Norway – Correct: Norway has an extensive coastline along the North Sea on its southwestern side.
❌ Finland – Incorrect: Finland is located on the Baltic Sea and does not have access to the North Sea.
❌ Russia – Incorrect: Russia does not border the North Sea; its nearest sea in the region is the Baltic Sea.
📝 Short Notes: North Sea Geography
- Location: The North Sea is a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean located between Great Britain, Scandinavia, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France.
- Bordering Countries: Seven countries border the North Sea – United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France.
- Important Ports: Major ports include Rotterdam (Netherlands), Hamburg (Germany), Antwerp (Belgium), and Aberdeen (UK).
- Economic Significance: The North Sea is rich in petroleum and natural gas reserves, making it one of the world's most important oil-producing regions.
- Fisheries: Historically one of the world's most productive fishing grounds, though overfishing has depleted stocks in recent decades.
- Strategic Importance: The North Sea has been strategically important for trade routes and naval operations throughout European history.
- Connection to Baltic Sea: The North Sea connects to the Baltic Sea through the Skagerrak and Kattegat straits between Denmark, Norway, and Sweden.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
Rainfall is a significant agent of weathering, particularly chemical weathering. Rainwater absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere forming weak carbonic acid, and also dissolves atmospheric oxygen. Both these dissolved gases actively participate in breaking down rock minerals through chemical reactions.
✅ Statement I – Correct: Rainfall causes both physical and chemical weathering of rocks through impact and chemical reactions.
✅ Statement II – Correct: Rainwater dissolves atmospheric CO₂, forming carbonic acid (H₂CO₃) which chemically weathers rocks.
✅ Statement III – Correct: Rainwater contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen which causes oxidation of minerals, a form of chemical weathering.
📝 Short Notes: Chemical Weathering by Rainwater
- Carbonation: CO₂ in rainwater forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which reacts with carbonate rocks (limestone, marble) and feldspars, dissolving them over time.
- Oxidation: Dissolved oxygen in rainwater reacts with iron-bearing minerals (like olivine, pyroxene) causing rust-like decomposition, weakening rock structure.
- Hydrolysis: Water molecules react with silicate minerals (feldspars, micas) to form clay minerals, contributing to rock breakdown.
- Solution: Rainwater can directly dissolve soluble minerals like halite and gypsum without additional chemical reactions.
- pH Factor: Natural rainwater has a pH of approximately 5.6 due to dissolved CO₂; acid rain (pH < 5.0) accelerates weathering rates significantly.
- Rate Factors: Weathering rate depends on rainfall intensity, temperature, rock composition, and vegetation cover which can either enhance or reduce weathering.
- Physical Impact: Besides chemical action, heavy rainfall causes mechanical weathering through raindrop impact and frost wedging in cold climates.
With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Gomati - Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
The correct sequence of Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East is Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, and Kosi. Gomati joins near Varanasi (westernmost), followed by Ghaghara at Chhapra, Gandak at Sonpur near Patna, and Kosi near Kursela in Katihar district (easternmost).
📝 Short Notes: Himalayan Tributaries of Ganga Downstream of Prayagraj
| River | Origin | Confluence with Ganga | Key Features |
|---|---|---|---|
| Gomati | Gomat Taal (Fulhaar Jheel), Pilibhit district, UP | Near Varanasi (Ghazipur), UP | Plains-fed river; flows through Lucknow; westernmost tributary in this sequence |
| Ghaghara (Karnali) | Mapchachungo glaciers near Mansarovar, Tibet | Chhapra (Saran district), Bihar | Largest tributary of Ganga by volume; flows through Nepal; also called Kauriala in UP |
| Gandak (Narayani) | Nepal Himalayas (between Dhaulagiri and Everest) | Sonpur (near Patna), Bihar | Composite river formed by Kaligandak and Trishuli; famous for shifting course |
| Kosi (Saptakosi) | Tibet/Nepal Himalayas (formed by Arun, Sun Kosi, Tamur Kosi) | Near Kursela, Katihar district, Bihar | Known as 'Sorrow of Bihar' due to frequent floods and channel shifts; easternmost tributary |
- Geographic Sequence: All four rivers originate in the Himalayas (except Gomati which is plains-fed) and join the Ganga in Bihar and eastern UP, progressively from west to east.
- Importance: These rivers are crucial for irrigation, hydropower, and navigation in the Indo-Gangetic plains, but also cause frequent flooding.
- Confluence Points: Remembering the confluence locations helps: Varanasi → Chhapra → Patna (Sonpur) → Katihar (west to east along Ganga's course).
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
The troposphere is indeed thicker at the equator (approximately 16-18 km) compared to the poles (approximately 8-10 km) due to differential heating and thermal expansion. The intense solar radiation at the equator generates strong convectional currents that transport heat vertically to great heights, causing the air to expand and thereby increasing the thickness of the troposphere. Statement-II provides a direct causal explanation for the phenomenon described in Statement-I.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: The troposphere's thickness at the equator (16-18 km) is significantly greater than at the poles (8-10 km) due to greater heating and air expansion.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: Strong convectional currents at the equator, driven by intense solar heating, transport heat vertically to great heights, directly causing the increased tropospheric thickness.
📝 Short Notes: Troposphere and Atmospheric Structure
- Troposphere Characteristics: The lowest layer of the atmosphere where all weather phenomena occur, containing approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and almost all water vapor.
- Thickness Variation: Troposphere thickness varies from 8-10 km at the poles to 16-18 km at the equator, averaging about 13 km globally.
- Equatorial Heating: The equator receives more direct and intense solar radiation throughout the year, causing maximum surface heating and air temperature.
- Convectional Currents: Hot air at the equator rises rapidly due to lower density, creating strong vertical currents that transport heat to higher altitudes (part of the Hadley Cell circulation).
- Thermal Expansion: Warmer air occupies greater volume, causing the atmospheric column to expand vertically at the equator, increasing tropospheric height.
- Temperature Lapse Rate: Temperature decreases with altitude in the troposphere at an average rate of 6.5°C per kilometer until reaching the tropopause.
- Tropopause Variation: The tropopause (boundary between troposphere and stratosphere) is higher and colder at the equator (-80°C) than at the poles (-45°C).
Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana
Côte d'Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana are the two largest cocoa producers in the world, together accounting for more than 60% of global cocoa production. West Africa dominates cocoa production, with these two countries leading the industry due to favorable climatic conditions and extensive cultivation.
📝 Short Notes: Global Cocoa Production
- West Africa's Dominance: West Africa produces approximately 70% of the world's cocoa, with Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana being the top two producers globally.
- Côte d'Ivoire: The world's largest cocoa producer, accounting for about 40-45% of global production, with approximately one million cocoa farmers supplying major companies like Nestlé, Mars, and Hershey.
- Ghana: The second-largest producer, contributing about 20% of global cocoa production, known for high-quality cocoa beans.
- Other Producers: Indonesia, Ecuador, Cameroon, and Nigeria are other significant cocoa-producing countries, but their combined output is much less than West Africa.
- Climatic Requirements: Cocoa thrives in tropical climates with high temperatures (21-32°C), high humidity, and well-distributed rainfall, typically within 10-20 degrees of the equator.
- Environmental Impact: Large-scale cocoa cultivation has led to significant deforestation in West Africa, particularly in Côte d'Ivoire, where forests have been cleared for cocoa plantations.
- Economic Significance: Cocoa is a major export commodity for West African countries, providing livelihoods for millions of smallholder farmers but also facing challenges like price volatility and labor issues.
Consider the following information :
| Region | Name of the mountain range | Type of mountain |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Central Asia | Vosges | Fold mountain |
| 2. Europe | Alps | Block mountain |
| 3. North America | Appalachians | Fold mountain |
| 4. South America | Andes | Fold mountain |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
This question tests the correct matching of mountain ranges with their regions and types. Out of the four given rows, only two contain completely accurate information regarding the region, name, and type of mountain range.
❌ Row 1 – Incorrect: The Vosges are located in Europe (eastern France), not Central Asia, and they are block mountains, not fold mountains.
❌ Row 2 – Incorrect: The Alps are correctly placed in Europe, but they are fold mountains formed by the collision of the African and Eurasian plates, not block mountains.
✅ Row 3 – Correct: The Appalachian Mountains are located in North America and are old fold mountains formed during the Paleozoic era.
✅ Row 4 – Correct: The Andes are located in South America and are young fold mountains formed by the subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate.
📝 Short Notes: Mountain Types and Formation
| Mountain Type | Formation Process | Examples | Characteristics |
|---|---|---|---|
| Fold Mountains | Formed by tectonic plate collision causing compression and folding of rock layers | Himalayas, Alps, Andes, Appalachians, Rockies | Often the highest peaks; associated with earthquakes and volcanic activity (young folds) |
| Block Mountains | Formed by faulting and vertical displacement of crustal blocks | Vosges, Black Forest, Sierra Nevada, Vindhyas | Steep on one side (fault scarp) and gentle on the other; formed by tension forces |
| Volcanic Mountains | Formed by accumulation of volcanic material | Mt. Fuji, Mt. Kilimanjaro, Mt. Vesuvius | Conical shape; active, dormant, or extinct volcanoes |
| Residual/Relict Mountains | Remnants of old mountains after prolonged erosion | Aravalli, Urals (partly) | Rounded peaks; highly weathered and eroded |
- Young Fold Mountains: Himalayas, Alps, Andes, Rockies — formed during the Tertiary period (66-2.6 million years ago); characterized by high peaks, sharp ridges, and active tectonic activity.
- Old Fold Mountains: Appalachians, Urals, Aravallis — formed during Paleozoic or earlier eras; extensively eroded with rounded peaks and lower elevations.
- Vosges and Black Forest: Classic examples of block mountains in Europe, formed by the same faulting process that created the Rhine Rift Valley between them.
- Plate Tectonics and Mountains: Most major mountain ranges are associated with convergent plate boundaries (fold mountains) or divergent boundaries with rifting (block mountains).
UPSC Prelims 2024 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Indian Polity
17 Qs (17%)Indian Economy
17 Qs (17%)Environment & Ecology
16 Qs (16%)World Geography
16 Qs (16%)Current Affairs
9 Qs (9%)Science & Technology
9 Qs (9%)Ancient History
4 Qs (4%)Modern History
3 Qs (3%)Indian Art & Culture
3 Qs (3%)Indian Geography
2 Qs (2%)International Relations
2 Qs (2%)Internal Security
1 Qs (1%)Medieval History
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2024?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2024?
- Indian Polity: 17 questions (17%)
- Indian Economy: 17 questions (17%)
- Environment & Ecology: 16 questions (16%)
- World Geography: 16 questions (16%)
- Current Affairs: 9 questions (9%)
- Science & Technology: 9 questions (9%)
- Ancient History: 4 questions (4%)
- Modern History: 3 questions (3%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 3 questions (3%)
- Indian Geography: 2 questions (2%)
- International Relations: 2 questions (2%)
- Internal Security: 1 questions (1%)
- Medieval History: 1 questions (1%)