UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper

Detailed Explanation:

Operation Sadbhavana is a unique initiative undertaken by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir and the North East regions. It focuses on winning the hearts and minds of the local population through various developmental activities and assistance. This includes providing education, healthcare, infrastructure development, and promoting skill development initiatives.

Let's look at the other options:

• Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy to ensure maritime security in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

•  Operation Maitri refers to the Indian Armed Forces' humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations to assist friendly countries. A notable example was the aid provided to Nepal during the 2015 earthquake.

•  Operation Madad is the Indian Navy's effort to provide humanitarian assistance and disaster relief during natural calamities, both within India and to neighboring countries.

Detailed Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) provides a minimum package of antenatal care (ANC) services only during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. It does not cover post-delivery health care services for six months. The focus is on ensuring safe pregnancies through early detection and management of high-risk cases.

Statement 2:  Correct. Under PMSMA, private sector health care providers (such as gynecologists, radiologists, and physicians) can volunteer to provide free services at nearby government health facilities on the 9th of every month. This public-private partnership enhances access to specialized care for pregnant women.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 2 (Statements 2 and 3 only)

The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana (PM-SYM) is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme launched for workers in the unorganized sector to provide old-age income security.

❌ Statement 1 is Incorrect: The eligible entry age is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: The subscriber makes age-specific monthly contributions. The contribution amount increases with the age at entry.

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: Every subscriber receives a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining 60 years of age.

❌ Statement 4 is Incorrect: Family pension is available only to the spouse, who receives 50% of the pension after the subscriber's death. Unmarried daughters are not covered.

Short Notes: Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM)

• Launched in 2019 for workers in the unorganized sector.

• Entry age: 18–40 years.

• Provides a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month after 60 years.

• It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme.

• The Central Government makes an equal matching contribution to the subscriber's contribution.

• Implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).

• On the subscriber's death, the spouse receives 50% of the pension as family pension.

• Target beneficiaries include street vendors, domestic workers, agricultural labourers, construction workers, etc.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (1, 2 and 3)

The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) aims to create a modern, transparent, and integrated system of land records management across India.

✅ Statement 1 is Correct: Since 1 April 2016, DILRMP has been implemented as a Central Sector Scheme, under which the Central Government provides 100% funding to States and Union Territories.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: The scheme includes the digitization of cadastral maps, which show land parcel boundaries, ownership details, and survey information.

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate Records of Rights (RoR) from local languages into any of the 22 languages recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, improving accessibility and interoperability.

Short Notes: Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP)

• Launched to modernize and digitize India's land records system.

• Became a Central Sector Scheme in 2016 with 100% Central funding.

• Integrates textual records and cadastral maps.

• Promotes online mutation and land record services.

• Aims to reduce land disputes and improve transparency.

• Includes digitization of Records of Rights (RoR).

• Supports Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) initiatives.

• Facilitates easier access to land records for citizens and institutions.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1 (Statement 2 only)

The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is an international non-profit organization dedicated to improving sanitation and ending the global sanitation crisis through advocacy, awareness, and capacity building.

❌ Statement 1 is Incorrect: The World Toilet Organization is not a United Nations agency. It is an independent international non-profit organization founded in 2001 in Singapore.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: The organization launched initiatives such as World Toilet Summit, World Toilet College, and played a key role in promoting World Toilet Day to raise awareness about sanitation issues worldwide.

❌ Statement 3 is Incorrect: Its primary role is advocacy, education, networking, and capacity building, not providing grants to countries. Funding sanitation projects is mainly undertaken by governments, development banks, and international agencies.

Short Notes: World Toilet Organization (WTO)

• Established in 2001 in Singapore.

• It is an international non-profit organization, not a UN agency.

• Works to improve global sanitation and hygiene.

• Organizes the World Toilet Summit to discuss sanitation challenges.

• Founded the World Toilet College for sanitation training and capacity building.

• Instrumental in advocating for World Toilet Day (19 November).

• Focuses on awareness, advocacy, partnerships, and knowledge sharing.

• Supports the achievement of SDG 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation).

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1

The 100 Million Farmers (100MF) initiative is a global platform launched by the World Economic Forum to accelerate the transition towards net-zero, nature-positive, and resilient food and water systems. It aims to support farmers in adopting sustainable agricultural practices while improving livelihoods and climate resilience.

✅ Statement I is Correct: The initiative focuses on creating net-zero (carbon), nature-positive, and water-resilient agricultural systems.

✅ Statement II is Correct: It aims to enhance farmer resilience, improve productivity, and promote regenerative agriculture practices.

❌ Option B is Incorrect: This describes organizations promoting organic animal husbandry, not the 100 Million Farmers initiative.

❌ Option C is Incorrect: This refers to a blockchain-based fertilizer trading platform, unrelated to 100 Million Farmers.

❌ Option D is Incorrect: While FPOs improve market access, the primary goal of 100 Million Farmers is sustainable agricultural transformation, not merely forming producer organizations.

Short Notes: 100 Million Farmers Initiative

• Launched by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

• Target: Support 100 million farmers by 2030.

• Promotes regenerative and climate-smart agriculture.

• Focuses on net-zero, nature-positive food systems.

• Enhances soil health, biodiversity, and water efficiency.

• Seeks to improve farmer incomes and resilience.

• Encourages public-private partnerships in agriculture.

• Contributes to global climate and sustainability goals.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (All Four)

Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small-scale energy generation, storage, or management systems located close to consumers rather than large centralized power plants. They help improve grid reliability, energy efficiency, and renewable energy integration.

✅ Battery Storage – Correct: Stores electricity locally and supplies power when needed, making it a key DER.

✅ Biomass Generators – Correct: Small-scale biomass-based power plants can generate electricity near consumption points.

✅ Fuel Cells – Correct: Fuel cells produce electricity in a decentralized manner and are widely recognized as DERs.

✅ Rooftop Solar Photovoltaic Units – Correct: One of the most common DERs, generating electricity directly at homes, offices, and industries.

Short Notes: Distributed Energy Resources (DERs)

• DERs are small-scale energy resources located near end-users.

• Include both energy generation and energy storage technologies.

• Common examples: rooftop solar, battery storage, fuel cells, biomass plants.

• Reduce transmission and distribution losses.

• Improve grid resilience and reliability.

• Support integration of renewable energy sources.

• Can operate independently or alongside the main grid.

• Important for the development of smart grids and decentralized energy systems.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (Metaverse)

The Metaverse refers to a persistent, interconnected network of 3D virtual worlds where millions of users can interact, work, socialize, create content, and own digital assets. A key feature is interoperability, allowing movement and interaction across different virtual environments.

❌ Big Data Analytics – Incorrect: It involves analyzing large datasets to derive insights and patterns, not creating virtual worlds.

❌ Cryptography – Incorrect: It is the science of securing communication and digital transactions. While important for virtual assets, it does not describe the virtual ecosystem itself.

✅ Metaverse – Correct: It is an interoperable network of virtual worlds where users can own, buy, sell, and transfer digital assets and experiences.

❌ Virtual Matrix – Incorrect: This is not a recognized term for the concept described in the question.

Short Notes: Metaverse

• A shared 3D virtual environment accessible through the internet.

• Combines Virtual Reality (VR), Augmented Reality (AR), AI, and Blockchain technologies.

• Allows users to interact through digital avatars.

• Supports ownership of virtual assets through NFTs and digital property rights.

• Key feature: Interoperability between virtual platforms.

• Can be used for gaming, education, business meetings, shopping, and entertainment.

• Often associated with the development of Web 3.0.

• Major technology companies are investing in metaverse ecosystems.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (All Three)

All three plants—Groundnut, Horse-gram, and Soybean—belong to the Fabaceae (also called Leguminosae or pea family). Members of this family typically produce fruits in the form of pods (legumes) and possess nitrogen-fixing root nodules.

✅ Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) – Correct: Belongs to the Fabaceae family and produces seeds inside pods.

✅ Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum) – Correct: A leguminous crop belonging to the pea family.

✅ Soybean (Glycine max) – Correct: One of the world's most important legumes and a member of Fabaceae.

Therefore, all three belong to the pea family.

Short Notes: Fabaceae (Pea Family)

• One of the largest flowering plant families with over 19,000 species.

• Also known as Leguminosae.

• Characterized by pod-like fruits (legumes).

• Roots contain Rhizobium bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen.

• Important food crops include pea, gram, lentil, soybean, groundnut, and horse-gram.

• Helps improve soil fertility through nitrogen fixation.

• Rich source of protein in human and animal diets.

• Economically important for food, fodder, oil, and soil conservation.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 2 (Statements 2 and 3 only)

Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) generate electricity from the heat released during the natural radioactive decay of isotopes. They are widely used in deep-space missions where solar power is insufficient.

❌ Statement I is Incorrect: RTGs are not miniature fission reactors. They do not use nuclear fission; instead, they generate power from the natural decay of radioactive isotopes.

✅ Statement II is Correct: RTGs are used to power spacecraft, satellites, and planetary rovers, especially in deep-space missions where sunlight is weak.

✅ Statement III is Correct: RTGs commonly use Plutonium-238, which can be produced during nuclear weapons-related processes and is specifically manufactured for civilian space applications.

Short Notes: Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs)

• Convert heat from radioactive decay directly into electricity using thermocouples.

• Do not involve a nuclear chain reaction or fission process.

• Common fuel: Plutonium-238 (Pu-238).

• Pu-238 has a half-life of about 87.7 years, providing long-term power.

• Ideal for missions far from the Sun where solar panels are ineffective.

• Used in missions such as Voyager 1, Voyager 2, and Curiosity Rover.

• Reliable, maintenance-free power source for decades.

• Important for deep-space exploration and planetary missions.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct)

Stars live for different lengths of time depending mainly on how fast they consume their nuclear fuel. Although giant stars contain more fuel, they burn it much more rapidly than dwarf stars.

❌ Statement I is Incorrect: Giant stars do not live longer than dwarf stars. Due to their high energy output, they exhaust their fuel quickly and have shorter lifespans.

✅ Statement II is Correct: Giant stars have much higher core temperatures and pressures, leading to a faster rate of nuclear fusion reactions than dwarf stars.

Relationship: Statement II actually explains why Statement I is incorrect. Faster nuclear reactions mean faster fuel consumption, resulting in a shorter lifespan.

Short Notes: Stellar Life Cycle

• The lifespan of a star depends mainly on its mass.

• More massive stars have higher core temperatures and faster fusion rates.

• Giant stars burn fuel much faster and may live only millions of years.

• Small dwarf stars can survive for billions to trillions of years.

• The Sun is a medium-sized star with an expected lifespan of about 10 billion years.

• Red dwarfs are the longest-living stars in the universe.

• Stars generate energy through nuclear fusion, mainly converting hydrogen into helium.

• After exhausting fuel, stars evolve into white dwarfs, neutron stars, or black holes depending on their mass.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1 (Nitric Oxide)

Nitric Oxide (NO) is a signaling molecule naturally produced in the human body from the amino acid L-arginine by the enzyme nitric oxide synthase (NOS). It relaxes the smooth muscles of blood vessels, causing vasodilation (widening of blood vessels), which increases blood flow and helps regulate blood pressure.

✅ Nitric Oxide – Correct: Causes vasodilation and improves blood circulation.

❌ Nitrous Oxide (N₂O) – Incorrect: Commonly known as "laughing gas"; used as an anesthetic and analgesic.

❌ Nitrogen Dioxide (NO₂) – Incorrect: A harmful air pollutant that can damage the respiratory system.

❌ Nitrogen Pentoxide (N₂O₅) – Incorrect: A reactive chemical compound with no role in human vasodilation.

Short Notes: Nitric Oxide (NO)

• Discovered as an important biological messenger; awarded the 1998 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine.

• Produced from L-arginine by nitric oxide synthase (NOS).

• Causes vasodilation, increasing blood flow and lowering blood pressure.

• Plays a key role in cardiovascular health.

• Involved in neurotransmission and immune responses.

• Drugs like Nitroglycerin act by releasing nitric oxide.

• Deficiency of NO may contribute to hypertension and vascular diseases.

• Acts as a short-lived gaseous signaling molecule.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (None)

Fifth-generation fighter aircraft are characterized by stealth technology, sensor fusion, supercruise capability, advanced avionics, and network-centric warfare systems. None of the aircraft listed belong to the fifth-generation category.

❌ Rafale – Incorrect: The Dassault Rafale is a 4.5-generation multirole fighter aircraft developed by France.

❌ MiG-29 – Incorrect: The Mikoyan MiG-29 is a fourth-generation fighter aircraft.

❌ Tejas MK-1 – Incorrect: The HAL Tejas Mk1 is generally classified as a fourth-generation light combat aircraft with some modern upgrades.

Therefore, none of the above are fifth-generation fighter aircraft.

Short Notes: Fighter Aircraft Generations

• 4th Generation: High maneuverability, fly-by-wire systems, pulse-Doppler radar (e.g., MiG-29).

• 4.5 Generation: Advanced avionics, AESA radar, limited stealth features (e.g., Rafale).

• 5th Generation: Full stealth, sensor fusion, supercruise, network-centric warfare.

• Examples of 5th-generation fighters: F-22 Raptor, F-35 Lightning II, Sukhoi Su-57.

• India currently operates Rafale, Su-30MKI, MiG-29, and Tejas, but none are fifth-generation fighters.

• India is developing the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA).

• Stealth technology reduces radar detection.

• Sensor fusion combines data from multiple sensors into a single operational picture.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Only Two (Option B)

Radar works by transmitting radio waves and detecting their reflected signals from objects. It is widely used in weather monitoring and wildlife tracking, but not for identifying narcotics on passengers.

❌ Statement I is Incorrect: Narcotics detection at airports is generally done using X-ray scanners, trace detectors, sniffer dogs, and chemical analysis, not radar.

✅ Statement II is Correct: Weather radars are extensively used to monitor precipitation such as rain, snow, and storms.

✅ Statement III is Correct: Radar technology is used to track the migration of birds, bats, and other animals for ecological studies.

Short Notes: Radar Applications

• RADAR stands for Radio Detection And Ranging.

• It uses radio waves to detect the location, speed, and direction of objects.

• Weather radars monitor rainfall, thunderstorms, and cyclones.

• Doppler Radar can measure the velocity of moving objects.

• Radar is widely used in aviation, defense, navigation, and meteorology.

• It helps track bird and animal migration over long distances.

• Radar works effectively in darkness, fog, and cloudy conditions.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Water Vapour (Option D)

Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) use hydrogen as fuel. Inside the fuel cell, hydrogen reacts with oxygen from the air to generate electricity that powers the vehicle.

The by-products of this reaction are water (H₂O) and heat. Therefore, the only exhaust emission released from the vehicle's tailpipe is water vapour, making FCEVs a clean-energy transportation technology.

❌ Hydrogen Peroxide: Not produced as a normal exhaust product in fuel cells.

❌ Hydronium (H₃O⁺): Exists in aqueous solutions and is not emitted from vehicles.

❌ Oxygen: Oxygen is consumed in the reaction, not emitted.

✅ Water Vapour: The primary and only exhaust emission from hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.

Short Notes: Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs)

• FCEVs use hydrogen (H₂) as fuel to generate electricity.

• Electricity is produced through an electrochemical reaction, not combustion.

• Main reaction: Hydrogen + Oxygen → Electricity + Water + Heat.

• The exhaust emission is only water vapour (H₂O).

• Fuel cells are considered zero tailpipe emission technology.

• Hydrogen is stored in high-pressure tanks inside the vehicle.

• Examples include the Toyota Mirai and Hyundai Nexo.

• FCEVs offer fast refuelling and longer driving ranges compared to many battery EVs.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ 1 Only (Option A)

Hydrogels are three-dimensional polymer networks that can absorb and retain large amounts of water. Their biocompatibility and controlled swelling properties make them highly useful in medical applications.

✅ Statement I is Correct: Hydrogels are widely used in controlled drug delivery because they can absorb water and release medicines gradually at a desired rate.

❌ Statement II is Incorrect: Mobile air-conditioning systems use refrigerants, compressors, and heat exchangers. Hydrogels are not standard components in these cooling systems.

❌ Statement III is Incorrect: Industrial lubricants are generally oil-based or synthetic formulations. Hydrogels do not possess the required lubrication properties for industrial use.

Short Notes: Hydrogels

• Hydrogels are water-absorbing polymer networks capable of holding large amounts of water.

• They can contain up to 90–99% water while maintaining their structure.

• Widely used in controlled drug delivery systems.

• Used in contact lenses, wound dressings, and tissue engineering.

• Most hydrogels are biocompatible and non-toxic.

• They respond to changes in pH, temperature, and moisture.

• Hydrogels are important materials in biomedical engineering and regenerative medicine.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Long Duration Energy Storage (Option C)

Pumped-Storage Hydropower (PSH) is often called a "water battery." It stores excess electricity by pumping water from a lower reservoir to a higher reservoir and releases it later to generate electricity when demand increases.

This technology is increasingly important for integrating renewable energy sources like solar and wind, which are intermittent in nature.

❌ Irrigation of terraced crop fields: PSH is designed for energy storage, not agricultural irrigation.

❌ Lift irrigation of cereal crops: Although pumps are used, the primary objective of PSH is electricity storage and grid balancing.

✅ Long Duration Energy Storage: PSH is one of the world's most widely used and mature technologies for storing electricity over long periods.

❌ Rainwater harvesting system: Rainwater harvesting focuses on water conservation, not electricity storage.

Short Notes: Pumped-Storage Hydropower (PSH)

• PSH is the largest grid-scale energy storage technology in the world.

• It uses two reservoirs at different elevations.

• During low demand, water is pumped uphill using surplus electricity.

• During peak demand, water flows downhill through turbines to generate power.

• Round-trip efficiency is generally around 70–80%.

• PSH helps integrate solar and wind energy into the power grid.

• It provides long-duration energy storage and grid stability.

• India is promoting PSH projects to support its renewable energy transition.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ 1 Only (Option A)

The Government of India Act, 1935 was the most comprehensive constitutional reform introduced by the British before independence. It proposed an All-India Federation but kept crucial subjects under British control.

✅ Statement I is Correct: The Act provided for an All India Federation consisting of British Indian Provinces and Princely States. However, the federation never came into existence because enough princely states did not join.

❌ Statement II is Incorrect: Defence and Foreign Affairs were reserved subjects under the control of the Governor-General, not the federal legislature. This ensured continued British control over key areas.

Short Notes: Government of India Act, 1935

• It was the longest Act passed by the British Parliament for India.

• Proposed an All India Federation of Provinces and Princely States.

• Introduced Provincial Autonomy, ending dyarchy in provinces.

• Introduced Dyarchy at the Centre, though it was never implemented.

• Created the Federal Court of India in 1937.

• Divided powers into Federal, Provincial, and Concurrent Lists.

• Extended the principle of separate electorates.

• Many provisions of the Act influenced the Constitution of India (1950).

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Only Two (Option B)

This question tests knowledge of major political parties and their founders/leaders in post-independence India.

✅ Pair 1 is Correct: Bharatiya Jana Sangh – Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in 1951.

❌ Pair 2 is Incorrect: Socialist Party – C. Rajagopalachari
C. Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party in 1959, not the Socialist Party.

✅ Pair 3 is Correct: Congress for Democracy – Jagjivan Ram
Jagjivan Ram established the Congress for Democracy (CFD) in 1977 during the Emergency period.

❌ Pair 4 is Incorrect: Swatantra Party – Acharya Narendra Dev
Acharya Narendra Dev was a prominent socialist leader associated with the Socialist movement, not the Swatantra Party.

Short Notes: Political Parties and Leaders in India

• Bharatiya Jana Sangh (1951) was founded by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee.

• Swatantra Party (1959) was founded by C. Rajagopalachari to oppose excessive state control and socialism.

• Acharya Narendra Dev is regarded as a pioneer of the socialist movement in India.

• Congress for Democracy (1977) was founded by Jagjivan Ram.

• Congress for Democracy later merged with the Janata Party.

• The Bharatiya Jana Sangh eventually evolved into the Bharatiya Janata Party in 1980.

• Socialist leaders included Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev, and Ram Manohar Lohia.