UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ 2 only

The question compares two land revenue systems of British India.
Ryotwari Settlement did not provide automatic exemption from revenue during bad harvests, though limited remissions could sometimes be granted.
Under the Permanent Settlement (1793) introduced by Lord Cornwallis, zamindars had to pay fixed revenue on time; failure could lead to loss or auction of their zamindari rights.

❌ Statement I is Incorrect: Ryotwari Settlement did not guarantee exemption from revenue payment during crop failure or natural calamities.

✅ Statement II is Correct: Under Permanent Settlement, failure to pay revenue by the fixed date could result in the zamindari being auctioned or taken away.

Short Notes: Permanent Settlement, Ryotwari and Mahalwari

• Permanent Settlement (1793) was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal.

• Revenue demand was fixed permanently between the British and zamindars.

• Under the Sunset Law, default in revenue payment could lead to auction of estates.

• Ryotwari System was developed by Thomas Munro and Alexander Reed in Madras and Bombay Presidencies.

• In Ryotwari, settlement was made directly with cultivators (ryots).

• Mahalwari System was introduced in parts of North-Western Provinces, Punjab and Central India.

• Mahalwari settlement was made with the village community (mahal) collectively.

• British land revenue systems often imposed high revenue demands, causing rural distress.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Krishnadevaraya

Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire maintained cordial relations with the Portuguese. In 1510, he permitted the Portuguese governor Alfonso de Albuquerque to build a fort at Bhatkal on the western coast. This strengthened trade relations between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Portuguese.

✅ Krishnadevaraya is Correct: He allowed the Portuguese to construct a fort at Bhatkal to promote trade and strategic cooperation.

❌ Narasimha Saluva is Incorrect: His reign preceded the period of significant Portuguese political influence in India.

❌ Muhammad Shah III is Incorrect: He ruled before the arrival of the Portuguese in India (1498).

❌ Yusuf Adil Shah is Incorrect: He had hostile relations with the Portuguese, especially regarding Goa.

Short Notes: Vijayanagara Empire and the Portuguese

• Vasco da Gama reached India in 1498 at Calicut.

• Krishnadevaraya (1509–1529) was the greatest ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty.

• Portuguese governor Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa in 1510.

• Bhatkal was an important port on the Karnataka coast.

• Vijayanagara imported horses, firearms, and luxury goods through Portuguese traders.

• Krishnadevaraya wrote the Telugu work Amuktamalyada.

• The empire reached its peak during Krishnadevaraya's reign.

• The Battle of Talikota (1565) led to the decline of Vijayanagara.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (2, 3 and 4)

Exercise Mitra Shakti 2023 was the 9th India–Sri Lanka Joint Military Exercise, conducted at Aundh, Pune (Maharashtra). The exercise focused on improving interoperability and joint responses during counter-terrorism operations. Personnel from both the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Sri Lanka Air Force also participated.

❌ Statement 1 is Incorrect: Mitra Shakti is a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: The exercise commenced at Aundh, Pune.

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a key objective.

✅ Statement 4 is Correct: Personnel from the Indian Air Force participated in the exercise.

Detailed Explanation:

Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is an Indian diplomat and politician serving as the Minister of External Affairs of India since 2019. He has authored two prominent books:

'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) which provides insights into India's foreign policy approach.

'Why Bharat Matters' is a compilation of his articles and speeches that delve into India's global significance.

Detailed Explanation:

• Argentina - Worst economic crisis: Correct. Argentina has been facing a severe economic crisis for a while, marked by high inflation, debt, and poverty.

• Sudan - War between the country's regular army and paramilitary forces: Correct. Sudan has been engulfed in a violent conflict between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces.

• Turkey - Rescinded its membership of NATO: Incorrect. Turkey has not rescinded its membership of NATO. While there have been tensions between Turkey and other NATO members, it remains a member.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1

The Sahel region of Africa has witnessed increasing instability due to terrorism, ethnic conflicts, weak governance, and repeated military coups. In recent years, countries like Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, and Chad have experienced military takeovers, which have further weakened democratic institutions and worsened the security situation.

✅ Statement-I is Correct: The Sahel region is facing severe instability, terrorism, armed conflicts, and humanitarian crises.

✅ Statement-II is Correct: Several Sahel countries have witnessed military coups in the recent past.

✅ Statement-II explains Statement-I: Frequent coups disrupt governance, weaken state institutions, and aggravate security challenges, leading to greater instability.

Short Notes: Sahel Region

• The Sahel is a semi-arid belt located between the Sahara Desert and the savanna region of Africa.

• It stretches from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Red Sea in the east.

• Major Sahel countries include Mali, Niger, Burkina Faso, Chad, Mauritania, and Sudan.

• The region faces threats from terrorist groups such as ISIS affiliates and Al-Qaeda-linked organizations.

• Several military coups occurred in Mali (2020, 2021), Burkina Faso (2022), and Niger (2023).

• Climate change, desertification, and food insecurity worsen regional instability.

• The G5 Sahel was formed to enhance regional security cooperation.

• The Sahel is frequently in news due to security, migration, and humanitarian concerns.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 — Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

The Net-Zero Industry Act (NZIA) was approved by the European Parliament in 2024 to strengthen clean-tech manufacturing within the European Union. However, the EU's legally binding climate-neutrality target is 2050, not 2040. Also, the Act does not aim to develop all clean technologies domestically; it targets meeting about 40% of the EU's annual deployment needs through domestic manufacturing.

✅ Statement-I is Correct: The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act (2024) to boost clean-tech manufacturing and reduce dependence on external suppliers.

❌ Statement-II is Incorrect: The EU aims for carbon neutrality by 2050, not 2040, and the Act does not seek to produce all clean technologies within the EU.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 — Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Venezuela continues to face economic and social challenges despite some periods of stabilization. Millions of Venezuelans have migrated abroad due to economic hardship, inflation, and political instability. On the other hand, Venezuela possesses the world’s largest proven oil reserves, yet it has struggled to convert this resource wealth into sustained economic prosperity.

❌ Statement-I is Incorrect: Venezuela has not fully recovered from its economic crisis, and large-scale emigration of its population has been a major consequence of the crisis. 

✅ Statement-II is Correct: Venezuela holds the world's largest proven oil reserves, estimated at about 300 billion barrels.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 — Statements 2 and 3 only

The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023 (106th Constitutional Amendment Act) provides 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. However, the reservation will come into force only after a fresh census and subsequent delimitation exercise, not from the 18th Lok Sabha.

❌ Statement 1 is Incorrect: The reservation does not take effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. It will be implemented only after the first Census conducted after the Act and the subsequent delimitation process.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: The reservation is provided for 15 years from the date of commencement of the Act, though Parliament may extend it through legislation.

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: The Act provides reservation for SC women and ST women within the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Short Notes: Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023

• Enacted through the 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023.

• Provides 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

• Includes reservation for SC/ST women within the existing SC/ST quota.

• Reservation will be implemented after the next Census and delimitation exercise.

• New Article 334A was inserted in the Constitution.

• Reservation will remain in force for 15 years, unless extended by Parliament.

• Does not provide reservation in the Rajya Sabha or State Legislative Councils.

• Aims to increase women's participation in legislative decision-making.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 — Statements 1 and 3 only

The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha examines complaints related to unethical conduct by Members of Parliament and recommends appropriate action. It was initially formed as an ad-hoc body and later became a permanent committee.

✅ Statement 1 is Correct: The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee was first constituted as an ad-hoc committee in 2000 and became a permanent committee in 2015.

❌ Statement 2 is Incorrect: Complaints can originate from any person. If the complainant is not an MP, the complaint must be forwarded by a Lok Sabha Member.

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: The Committee does not examine sub-judice matters, i.e., matters currently under consideration by a court of law.

Short Notes: Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha

• Constituted initially as an ad-hoc committee in 2000.

• Became a permanent committee in 2015.

• Examines cases involving unethical conduct of Members of Parliament.

• Frames and enforces standards of parliamentary ethics and conduct.

• Can recommend disciplinary action against members.

• Complaints may be initiated by citizens but require forwarding by an MP.

• Cannot take up sub-judice matters.

• Helps maintain the dignity and credibility of Parliament.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 3 (1, 2 and 3)

A Money Bill deals only with matters listed under Article 110 of the Constitution, such as taxation, borrowing, and expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding it.

✅ Statement 1 is Correct: Article 109 provides the special procedure for passing a Money Bill.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: Rajya Sabha can only recommend changes within 14 days; it cannot reject a Money Bill.

❌ Statement 4 is Incorrect: Lok Sabha is not bound to accept the recommendations made by Rajya Sabha.

Short Notes: Money Bill

• Article 110 defines a Money Bill.

• A Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.

• Prior recommendation of the President is required before introduction.

• The Speaker of Lok Sabha certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill.

• Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations and must return it within 14 days.

• Lok Sabha may accept or reject Rajya Sabha's recommendations.

• If Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within 14 days, it is deemed passed.

• There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a Money Bill.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 4 (1, 2 and 3)

The Indian Constitution is divided into different Parts dealing with specific subjects. The statements correctly identify the constitutional parts related to Municipalities, Emergency Provisions, and Constitutional Amendments.

✅ Statement 1 is Correct: Part IX-A (Articles 243P to 243ZG) deals with Municipalities and was added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360) contains the Emergency Provisions, including National, State, and Financial Emergencies.

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: Part XX contains Article 368, which lays down the procedure and power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

Short Notes: Parts of the Indian Constitution

• Part IX-A deals with Municipalities and urban local self-government.

• The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies.

• Part XVIII (Articles 352–360) contains Emergency Provisions.

• India has three types of emergencies: National, State (President's Rule), and Financial Emergency.

• Part XX contains Article 368, dealing with Constitutional Amendments.

• The Constitution can be amended by Simple Majority, Special Majority, or Special Majority plus State Ratification depending on the provision.

• The Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) established the Basic Structure Doctrine, limiting Parliament's amending power.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 3 (Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List)

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution divides subjects between the Union and States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. Matters having national importance or requiring uniform regulation across states are generally placed in the Union List.

❌ Option 1 is Incorrect: Inter-State trade and commerce is a Union List subject, not a State List subject.

❌ Option 2 is Incorrect: Inter-State migration and inter-State movement fall under the Union List, not the State List.

✅ Option 3 is Correct: Inter-State quarantine is included in the Union List (Entry 81) because disease control across state boundaries requires central coordination.

❌ Option 4 is Incorrect: Corporation tax is levied by the Union Government and is a Union List subject.

Short Notes: Seventh Schedule of the Constitution

• The Seventh Schedule distributes legislative powers between the Union and States.

• It contains Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

• The Union List currently has around 100 subjects of national importance.

• The State List contains subjects of local and regional importance.

• The Concurrent List allows both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws.

• In case of conflict on a Concurrent List subject, Union law prevails.

• Inter-State trade, migration, quarantine, citizenship, defence, and corporation tax are Union List subjects.

• The scheme of distribution is based on Articles 246 and 246A.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 4 (Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha)

The Constituent Assembly of India first met on 9 December 1946. Since the permanent President had not yet been elected, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was appointed as the Provisional President (Temporary Chairman). Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly on 11 December 1946.

✅ Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha is Correct: He served as the first and Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.

❌ C. Rajagopalachari: He was the last Governor-General of India, not the Provisional President.

❌ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

❌ T.T. Krishnamachari: He was an important member of the Constituent Assembly but not its Provisional President.

Short Notes: Constituent Assembly of India

• The Constituent Assembly first met on 9 December 1946.

• Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha served as the Provisional President.

• Dr. Rajendra Prasad became the permanent President on 11 December 1946.

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

• The Drafting Committee was formed on 29 August 1947.

• The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.

• The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950.

• The Constituent Assembly took about 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to complete the Constitution.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 2 (2 only)

The Constitution provides a specific process for identifying Scheduled Tribes (STs). The status of a community as an ST is determined by the President of India and can vary from one state to another.

❌ Statement 1 is Incorrect: It is the President of India, not the Governor, who specifies Scheduled Tribes under Article 342 of the Constitution. Parliament can later modify this list by law.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: A community recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one State may not be recognized as an ST in another State because the social and geographical conditions differ across regions.

Short Notes: Scheduled Tribes (STs)

• Article 342 deals with the specification of Scheduled Tribes.

• The President of India notifies STs for a State or Union Territory.

• Any change in the ST list can be made only by Parliament through legislation.

• ST status is State-specific, not uniform across India.

• The Constitution provides safeguards for STs in education, employment, and political representation.

• Seats are reserved for STs in Lok Sabha, State Assemblies, and local bodies.

• The Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas in most states.

• The Sixth Schedule provides autonomous councils in certain tribal areas of the Northeast.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 4 (Four)

The Government of India had constituted four Delimitation Commissions up to December 2023—in 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002. These commissions were set up to redraw the boundaries of Lok Sabha and State Assembly constituencies based on census data to ensure fair representation.

✅ Delimitation Commission 1952: Constituted after the first Census following Independence.

✅ Delimitation Commission 1963: Based on the 1961 Census.

✅ Delimitation Commission 1973: Based on the 1971 Census.

✅ Delimitation Commission 2002: Based on the 2001 Census; its recommendations were implemented in 2008.

Short Notes: Delimitation Commission

• Delimitation means redrawing the boundaries of electoral constituencies.

• It is constituted by the President of India under a Delimitation Commission Act passed by Parliament.

• Delimitation Commissions were set up in 1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002.

• The Commission usually consists of a retired Supreme Court judge (Chairperson), the Chief Election Commissioner, and the concerned State Election Commissioners.

• Its orders have the force of law and cannot ordinarily be challenged in court.

• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) froze delimitation based on population until 2001.

• The 84th Constitutional Amendment (2001) extended the freeze on seat allocation until 2026.

• The latest delimitation exercise was based on the 2001 Census and came into effect in 2008.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ D. 1 and 3 only

The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) serves as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and acts as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters. However, the CDS does not exercise direct military command over the Army, Navy, and Air Force Chiefs. Each Service Chief continues to command their respective force.

✅ Statement 1 is Correct: CDS is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC).

❌ Statement 2 is Incorrect: CDS does not exercise operational or military command over the three Service Chiefs.

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: CDS is the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters.

Short Notes: Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)

• CDS post was created in 2019.

• CDS is the Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC).

• CDS heads the Department of Military Affairs (DMA) under the Ministry of Defence.

• CDS promotes jointness and integration among the Army, Navy and Air Force.

• CDS is the single-point military adviser to the Defence Minister on tri-service issues.

• CDS does not command the three Service Chiefs.

• The post was recommended by the Kargil Review Committee and later supported by other reform committees.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ D. Article 21

The Right to Privacy was recognized as a Fundamental Right by the Supreme Court in the landmark Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017) judgment. The Court held that privacy is an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution.

✅ Article 21 is Correct: The Supreme Court placed the Right to Privacy under the ambit of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

❌ Article 15 is Incorrect: It deals with prohibition of discrimination on certain grounds.

❌ Article 16 is Incorrect: It provides equality of opportunity in public employment.

❌ Article 19 is Incorrect: It guarantees various freedoms, but the Right to Privacy was specifically recognized under Article 21.

Short Notes: Right to Privacy

• Justice K.S. Puttaswamy Case (2017) declared privacy a Fundamental Right.

• Right to Privacy is derived from Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).

• The judgment was delivered by a 9-Judge Constitution Bench.

• Privacy includes personal autonomy, dignity, bodily integrity, and informational privacy.

• The judgment overruled earlier decisions that denied privacy as a Fundamental Right.

• Privacy is not absolute and can be restricted through a valid law meeting constitutional tests.

• The ruling became the constitutional basis for India's data protection framework.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ A. 1, 2 and 3 only

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. After the 2002 Amendment, the Council's composition was expanded to include the Governors, Chief Ministers of all constituent states, and three members nominated by the President of India. The Union Home Minister was not included as a statutory member under the amendment.

✅ Statement 1 is Correct: Governors of all constituent North-Eastern States are members of the NEC.

✅ Statement 2 is Correct: Chief Ministers of all constituent States are members of the NEC.

✅ Statement 3 is Correct: Three members nominated by the President are included after the 2002 amendment.

❌ Statement 4 is Incorrect: The Home Minister is not a statutory member under the 2002 amendment provisions.

Short Notes: North Eastern Council (NEC)

• NEC was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971.

• It is the regional planning and advisory body for the North-East.

• NEC covers 8 North-Eastern States: Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

• The 2002 Amendment strengthened the Council's role in regional development.

• Members include Governors, Chief Ministers, and three Presidential nominees.

• NEC functions under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER).

• It supports projects related to connectivity, infrastructure, health, education, and economic development.

Detailed Explanation:

Correct Answer: ✅ D. 3 only

Equivalent ranks in the Army, Air Force, and Navy must match the same level of command and responsibility. Among the given pairs, only Major – Squadron Leader – Lieutenant Commander are equivalent ranks.

❌ Pair 1 is Incorrect: Brigadier = Air Commodore = Commodore, not Commander.

❌ Pair 2 is Incorrect: Major General = Air Vice Marshal = Rear Admiral, not Vice Admiral.

✅ Pair 3 is Correct: Major = Squadron Leader = Lieutenant Commander.

❌ Pair 4 is Incorrect: Lieutenant Colonel = Wing Commander = Commander. Group Captain and Captain are equivalent to Colonel.

Short Notes: Equivalent Ranks in Indian Armed Forces

• Field Marshal = Admiral of the Fleet = Marshal of the Air Force.

• General = Admiral = Air Chief Marshal.

• Lieutenant General = Vice Admiral = Air Marshal.

• Major General = Rear Admiral = Air Vice Marshal.

• Brigadier = Commodore = Air Commodore.

• Colonel = Captain (Navy) = Group Captain.

• Lieutenant Colonel = Commander = Wing Commander.

• Major = Lieutenant Commander = Squadron Leader.