UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2017 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
Consider the following statements:
- The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
- N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Factories Act, 1881 was primarily concerned with regulating the working conditions of children in factories, not fixing wages or allowing trade unions. It prohibited the employment of children below 7 years of age, restricted working hours for children (7-12 years) to 9 hours per day, and mandated one day off per week. The Act did not address wage fixation or trade union formation—these aspects came much later in labour legislation.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: N.M. Lokhande (Narayan Meghaji Lokhande) is recognized as a pioneer of the labour movement in British India. He founded the Bombay Mill Hands Association in 1890, one of the first labour organizations in India. He actively campaigned for workers' rights, including the abolition of the contract system, weekly holidays, and shorter working hours. His efforts led to significant improvements in working conditions for industrial workers in Bombay.
With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
- Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
- Quit India Movement launched
- Second Round Table Conference
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 3-2-1
The Second Round Table Conference was held in London in September 1931 to discuss constitutional reforms. The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942, demanding immediate British withdrawal from India. The Royal Indian Navy Mutiny occurred in February 1946, when Indian sailors revolted against British discrimination and poor conditions. Thus, the correct chronological order is 3-2-1.
In the context of Indian history, the principle of “Dyarchy (diarchy)” refers to -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.
Dyarchy was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919, as a system of dual governance at the provincial level. Under this system, provincial subjects were divided into two categories: 'Reserved' subjects (controlled by the Governor and his Executive Council) and 'Transferred' subjects (controlled by Indian ministers responsible to the legislature). This was an experiment in responsible government, though it had limited success.
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Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?
- Lord Cornwallis
- Alexander Read
- Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 2 and 3 only
The Ryotwari Settlement was a land revenue system introduced in British India where settlements were made directly with the cultivators (ryots). Alexander Read first introduced this system experimentally in the Baramahal district of Madras Presidency in 1792, and Thomas Munro later refined and expanded it across the Madras Presidency, making him the principal architect of the system.
✅ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement (Zamindari System) in Bengal and Bihar in 1793, not the Ryotwari Settlement.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Captain Alexander Read first introduced the Ryotwari system in the Baramahal district (Madras Presidency) in 1792 after the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Thomas Munro refined and extended the Ryotwari system across most of the Madras Presidency and later became Governor of Madras (1820–1827), establishing himself as the primary architect of this land revenue system.
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 was enacted by the British colonial government to regulate industrial disputes in India. It established a formal mechanism through Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation (tribunals) to investigate and mediate conflicts between employers and workers. Crucially, the Act imposed severe restrictions on strikes: it banned strikes in public utility services (railways, postal services, water supply, etc.) without 14 days' prior notice, and declared general strikes and political strikes illegal. This legislation was primarily aimed at controlling the growing trade union movement and preventing large-scale labor unrest that could challenge British authority.
Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Motupalli
Motupalli was the most important seaport of the Kakatiya kingdom, located on the coast of present-day Andhra Pradesh. King Ganapati Deva issued the famous Motupalli Inscription (Abhaya Shasanam) around 1245 CE, which served as a charter of security for foreign merchants, guaranteeing their protection and establishing reasonable customs duties to promote maritime trade. The Venetian traveler Marco Polo visited this port during the reign of Queen Rudrama Devi (referring to it as 'Mutfili') and documented the kingdom's prosperity, particularly noting its trade in fine muslin and diamonds.
Why other options are incorrect:
• Kakinada became prominent much later, during the colonial period.
• Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam) gained significance under the Qutb Shahi and later European colonial powers, not during the Kakatiya period.
• Nelluru was primarily an inland administrative center, not a major seaport during the Kakatiya rule.
Consider the following statements:
- The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
- The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements are incorrect regarding the institutional affiliations of nuclear security mechanisms. The Nuclear Security Summits were an independent initiative outside the UN framework, and the International Panel on Fissile Materials is not affiliated with the IAEA.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Nuclear Security Summits (2010-2016) were initiated by the United States as an independent initiative, not under the aegis of the United Nations or any formal international organization.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is an independent expert group of arms control and non-proliferation specialists, not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:
- The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
- India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
The Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD) is an intergovernmental platform for Asia-Pacific countries to collaborate on housing and urban development issues. Both statements contain factual inaccuracies regarding the conference's theme and hosting arrangements.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The first APMCHUD was held in New Delhi, India in December 2006, but the theme was 'A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020', not 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure'.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: APMCHUD is a biennial event hosted by different member countries on a rotational basis (as agreed in previous conferences), not annually hosted by India in partnership with ADB, APEC, and ASEAN.
Consider the following statements:
- India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
- TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
- TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 and 2 only
The Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) is a multilateral deal aimed at simplifying customs procedures, reducing costs, and improving speed and efficiency of trade. India ratified this agreement, which was a key component of the WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013. However, the TFA came into force in February 2017 (not January 2016), after receiving ratification from two-thirds of WTO members.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO, demonstrating its commitment to streamlining trade procedures.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The TFA is indeed a part of the WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013, which was agreed upon at the Ninth Ministerial Conference in Bali, Indonesia.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The TFA came into force in February 2017, not January 2016, after two-thirds of WTO members completed their ratification process.
With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?
- UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
- Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
- UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 3 only
UN-Habitat is the United Nations programme for human settlements with a mandate to promote sustainable urbanization and adequate shelter for all. Statement 2 is incorrect because UN-Habitat works with diverse partners including NGOs, academic institutions, private sector, and civil society organizations, not just governments and local authorities.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: UN-Habitat has been mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities and provide adequate shelter for all.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: UN-Habitat partners with a wide range of stakeholders including governments, local authorities, NGOs, academic institutions, private sector entities, and civil society organizations, not just governments or local urban authorities.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: UN-Habitat contributes to the UN system's overall objectives of poverty reduction and promoting access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation as part of sustainable urban development.
Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
- Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
- IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among the navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) is a voluntary initiative aimed at fostering maritime cooperation among navies of the Indian Ocean littoral states. Statement 1 is incorrect as the inaugural IONS was held in 2008 (not 2015), while Statement 2 correctly describes the voluntary and cooperative nature of IONS.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The inaugural IONS was held in February 2008 in New Delhi, India, not in 2015. The Indian Navy served as the Chair from 2008-2010.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: IONS is indeed a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region, providing a platform for dialogue on regional maritime security issues.
Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — European Union
The Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) is a comprehensive free trade agreement being negotiated between India and the European Union since June 2007. The agreement aims to liberalize bilateral trade by eliminating tariffs on approximately 90% of goods, facilitating trade in services, and promoting investment flows between the two regions. Negotiations have faced challenges over sensitive issues including market access for automobiles and agricultural products, intellectual property rights, and the movement of professionals under Mode 4 of services trade.
What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
The development of Chabahar Port in Iran is strategically significant for India as it provides an alternative sea-land transit route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan entirely. Pakistan has historically restricted India's overland access to these regions, making Chabahar a critical gateway. Through the 2016 trilateral transit agreement between India, Iran, and Afghanistan, goods can be shipped to Chabahar and transported via road (Zaranj-Delaram highway) and rail networks into Afghanistan and beyond, ensuring India's connectivity independent of Pakistani territory.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: While Chabahar may facilitate some African trade, its primary strategic importance is connectivity to Afghanistan and Central Asia, not Africa.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: The port's development is not primarily aimed at strengthening relations with oil-producing Arab countries, but rather at gaining access to landlocked regions.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Pakistan is unlikely to facilitate or protect any gas pipeline from Iraq to India; Chabahar's purpose is to bypass Pakistan, not depend on it.
Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
The superior virtue of democracy lies in its ability to call into activity the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women, making them active participants rather than passive subjects in governance. Democracy is fundamentally built on the principle of citizen participation, where collective wisdom of informed and engaged people leads to better decision-making and promotes societal welfare. While strong leadership and dedicated party workers have their roles, the true strength of democracy rests in empowering the citizenry, ensuring that governance reflects the will, values, and character of the common people rather than an elite few.
In India, Judicial Review implies -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the Judiciary to examine and determine whether laws passed by the Legislature and actions taken by the Executive are in conformity with the Constitution. If any law or executive order is found to violate constitutional provisions, the courts can declare them invalid or unconstitutional. This power is derived from Articles 13, 32, 136, 142, and 226 of the Indian Constitution and forms a critical part of the system of checks and balances, ensuring the supremacy of the Constitution and protection of fundamental rights.
Why Option 1 is Correct:
Option 1 accurately defines Judicial Review as the judiciary's power to assess the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive actions, which is the core essence of this doctrine in India.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: The Judiciary cannot question the wisdom or policy behind laws; it can only examine their constitutional validity.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Judicial Review is not a pre-enactment scrutiny mechanism; courts review laws only after they are enacted and challenged.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: This describes the power of review or reconsideration of judgments, not Judicial Review in the constitutional sense.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Indian federalism is not the result of an agreement among the federating units, unlike classical federations such as the United States or Switzerland. The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly and not through a compact or agreement among pre-existing sovereign states. The Indian federal structure was created by the Constitution itself, making it a union created by an act of the Constituent Assembly rather than by mutual agreement.
✅ Option 1 – Correct: India has an independent judiciary which acts as the guardian of the Constitution and arbiter in Centre-State disputes.
✅ Option 2 – Correct: The Constitution clearly divides powers between the Centre and States through the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
✅ Option 3 – Correct: States have unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha based on their population, unlike the equal representation typical of classical federations.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Indian federalism was not created by an agreement among federating units but was established by the Constituent Assembly through the Constitution.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
Rights are fundamental entitlements that empower citizens to make legitimate claims against the State, ensuring protection of their freedoms and access to essential services. The State has a constitutional duty to respect, protect, and fulfill these rights, which serve as a safeguard against arbitrary state action.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Rights are not claims of the State against citizens; rather, the State has obligations to protect citizens' rights.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Rights are not mere privileges but fundamental entitlements guaranteed to all citizens, though many are incorporated in the Constitution.
✅ Option 3 – Correct: Rights represent legitimate claims that citizens can make against the State to ensure their freedoms and entitlements are protected and fulfilled.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Rights are universal entitlements for all citizens, not privileges limited to a few, embodying the principle of equality.
Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
- Legislative function.
- Executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution are not limitations but positive guidelines for the State. They are non-justiciable under Article 37, meaning they cannot be enforced in courts but serve as fundamental principles for governance. DPSPs guide both legislative and executive functions towards achieving socio-economic justice, rather than constraining or limiting these functions.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: DPSPs are not limitations on legislative function; they are positive instructions and guiding principles that the legislature should strive to implement while making laws.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: DPSPs are not limitations on executive function; being non-justiciable, they serve as policy goals and guiding ideals for the executive to pursue in governance and administration.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Abolition of untouchability
- Protection of the interests of minorities
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 4 only
The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24) specifically protects individuals from forced labor, human trafficking, and child exploitation in hazardous occupations. Articles 23 and 24 directly correspond to statements 1 and 4 respectively, making them the only correct components of this fundamental right.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 23 explicitly prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labor), and similar forms of forced labor.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Abolition of untouchability is covered under Article 17, which falls under the Right to Equality, not the Right against Exploitation.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Protection of the interests of minorities is ensured through Articles 29-30 under Cultural and Educational Rights, not under the Right against Exploitation.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or any hazardous occupation, directly addressing child exploitation.
Thus, only statements 1 and 4 form part of the Right against Exploitation under the Indian Constitution.
Consider the following statements:
- The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
- Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 3 only
The Election Commission of India is a three-member body (one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners), not five-member. The ECI itself decides the election schedule under Article 324, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Only Statement 3 is correct as the ECI has the statutory power to resolve disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognized political parties and allocate symbols accordingly.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The ECI is a three-member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners, not five members.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Election Commission of India, not the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, decides the election schedule for general elections and by-elections under Article 324 of the Constitution.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Election Commission has the authority to resolve disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognized political parties and decide on the allocation of party symbols.
UPSC Prelims 2017 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Indian Polity
22 Qs (22%)Indian Economy
18 Qs (18%)Environment & Ecology
15 Qs (15%)Current Affairs
9 Qs (9%)Science & Technology
9 Qs (9%)Modern History
7 Qs (7%)International Relations
6 Qs (6%)Indian Art & Culture
5 Qs (5%)Indian Geography
5 Qs (5%)World Geography
2 Qs (2%)Medieval History
1 Qs (1%)Ancient History
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2017?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2017?
- Indian Polity: 22 questions (22%)
- Indian Economy: 18 questions (18%)
- Environment & Ecology: 15 questions (15%)
- Current Affairs: 9 questions (9%)
- Science & Technology: 9 questions (9%)
- Modern History: 7 questions (7%)
- International Relations: 6 questions (6%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 5 questions (5%)
- Indian Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- World Geography: 2 questions (2%)
- Medieval History: 1 questions (1%)
- Ancient History: 1 questions (1%)