UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2017 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
The Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
- Jordan
- Iraq
- Lebanon
- Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 3 and 4 only
The Mediterranean Sea borders several countries in Southern Europe, North Africa, and Western Asia. Among the given options, only Lebanon and Syria have coastlines along the eastern Mediterranean Sea.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Jordan does not border the Mediterranean Sea; it is separated from it by Israel and has only a short coastline on the Gulf of Aqaba (Red Sea).
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Iraq does not border the Mediterranean Sea; it is located further east with maritime access only through the Persian Gulf.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Lebanon is a Levantine country with its entire western border formed by the Mediterranean Sea coastline.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Syria has a coastline along the eastern Mediterranean Sea, located between Turkey to the north and Lebanon to the south.
Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Sumatra
Sumatra is the geographically closest island to Great Nicobar, separated by the Great Channel (also known as the Six Degree Channel or Strait of Sumatra). The distance between the southernmost point of Great Nicobar and the northern tip of Sumatra (Aceh province, Indonesia) is approximately 145–150 km.
In contrast, Sri Lanka is located about 1,200 km to the west of the Nicobar Islands across the Bay of Bengal. Java is situated to the southeast of Sumatra, at a distance of over 1,500 km from Great Nicobar. Borneo is positioned much further east in the Malay Archipelago, making it the most distant among all options. Therefore, Sumatra is the correct answer.
Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?
- Reduced or zero tillage of the land
- Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
- Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only
Water conservation in agriculture involves practices that reduce water loss through evaporation, improve soil water retention, and enhance infiltration. Reduced or zero tillage and leaving crop residue on fields are effective water conservation techniques, while gypsum application primarily improves soil structure rather than directly conserving water.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Reduced or zero tillage minimizes soil disturbance, creating a more compact surface that reduces evaporation and allows better water infiltration and retention in the soil.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Gypsum (calcium sulfate) is a soil amendment that improves soil structure and reduces sodicity, but it does not directly contribute to water conservation; it may even increase leaching in some cases.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Crop residue left on the field acts as mulch, reducing soil evaporation, suppressing weeds, preventing erosion, and maintaining soil moisture for longer periods.
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If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Chambal River
The National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary, located along the Chambal River spanning Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, is the best place to see gharials in their natural habitat. This tri-state protected area is one of the most important sanctuaries dedicated to the conservation of the critically endangered gharial, a fish-eating crocodilian species. The sanctuary provides ideal riverine conditions for gharial breeding and survival, making it the premier destination for observing these unique reptiles in the wild.
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides the highest level of legal protection to endangered species in India. Any species listed under Schedule I, whether a tiger, elephant, or tortoise, receives identical legal safeguards including absolute protection from hunting, trade, and habitat destruction, with the most stringent penalties for violations.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: This describes the IUCN Red List category 'Extinct in the Wild', which is a biological conservation status, not a legal designation under the Wildlife (Protection) Act.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Endemism (being restricted to a particular geographic region) is not a criterion for Schedule I listing; species are listed based on the degree of threat and need for protection, regardless of their geographic range.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Since both statements B and C are incorrect, this option is also incorrect.
Note: The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022, has rationalized the original six schedules into four schedules, but Schedule I continues to provide the highest level of protection.
The term 'M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
M-STRIPES stands for Monitoring System for Tigers - Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. It is a software-based monitoring system launched by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) to strengthen tiger protection and enhance patrolling activities in tiger reserves across India. The system enables real-time monitoring of patrol efforts, wildlife sightings, and ecological parameters by forest guards and staff in tiger reserves.
Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
The Ministry of Environment approved Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary (now Kuno National Park) in Madhya Pradesh as the second home for translocating Asiatic lions from Gir National Park in Gujarat. This translocation was proposed to create a second viable population of Asiatic lions to ensure their long-term survival and reduce the risk of extinction from disease outbreaks or natural disasters at a single location. However, the translocation has faced delays due to various administrative and conservation concerns.
In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
- It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
- Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
- Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only
Bioremediation is a pollution control technique that uses living organisms, primarily microorganisms, to degrade or neutralize environmental contaminants by enhancing natural biodegradation processes. While genetic engineering can create specialized microorganisms for targeted bioremediation, heavy metals like cadmium and lead cannot be readily or completely treated through this technique as they are elements that cannot be biodegraded.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Bioremediation works by enhancing the natural biodegradation processes that occur in nature, using microorganisms to break down pollutants in soil, water, or other environments.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Heavy metals like cadmium and lead cannot be readily and completely treated by bioremediation because they are elemental pollutants that cannot be biodegraded, though they may be transformed or immobilized.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Genetic engineering techniques can be used to design microorganisms with enhanced or specific capabilities to target particular contaminants for more effective bioremediation.
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
- Gharial
- Indian wild ass
- Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
All three animals—Gharial, Indian wild ass, and Wild Buffalo—are listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides the highest level of protection. Schedule I species cannot be hunted by any person except under exceptional provisions such as disease control or to prevent human attacks, making hunting of all three animals illegal under normal circumstances.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Gharial is listed in Schedule I and enjoys absolute protection from hunting.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Indian wild ass is listed in Schedule I and is protected from hunting.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Wild Buffalo is listed in Schedule I and cannot be hunted except under specific legal provisions.
From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) in Tamil Nadu is the largest tiger reserve in the state and serves as a crucial wildlife corridor within the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It acts as a vital ecological link connecting the Western Ghats with the Eastern Ghats, facilitating genetic flow and wildlife movement between these two mountain ranges. STR is contiguous with several protected areas including Biligiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park, and Bandipur National Park, making it ecologically significant for biodiversity conservation and maintaining landscape connectivity between the Eastern and Western Ghats.
Consider the following statements:
- Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
- The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) was launched in 2012 by UNEP and six founding countries (Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States), not exclusively by the G20. It has since expanded to include over 160 partners worldwide. The CCAC specifically targets Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (SLCPs) that have significant warming potential but remain in the atmosphere for shorter periods than CO₂.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: CCAC is not a unique initiative of the G20; it was launched by UNEP and six countries and has grown into a global coalition with diverse membership beyond G20.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The CCAC's primary focus is on reducing methane (CH₄), black carbon (BC), and hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are potent short-lived climate pollutants.
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for measuring the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms while decomposing organic matter in water bodies. It serves as a key indicator of water pollution—higher BOD values indicate greater organic pollution and potential harm to aquatic life due to oxygen depletion. BOD testing is widely used in environmental monitoring to assess the health and quality of aquatic ecosystems.
Due to some reasons if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
- Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
- There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
- It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only
Butterflies play a crucial role as pollinators and as prey in food webs. A significant decline in butterfly populations would adversely affect pollination of many flowering plants and reduce food availability for their predators like wasps, spiders, and insectivorous birds, leading to cascading ecological effects.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Butterflies are important pollinators for numerous flowering plants, and their population decline would negatively impact pollination success, affecting fruit and seed production.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Butterfly population decline is not directly linked to increased fungal infections in cultivated plants; fungal diseases are primarily influenced by environmental factors like humidity, temperature, and plant health rather than butterfly populations.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Butterflies serve as a critical food source for various predators including wasps, spiders, and insectivorous birds; their decline would disrupt the food chain and negatively impact these predator populations.
With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is an initiative of the European Union.
- It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
- It is coordinated by the World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 and 2 only
The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is a flagship initiative of the European Union launched in 2007 to support developing countries, particularly LDCs and SIDS, in addressing climate change challenges. It provides both technical and financial assistance to help integrate climate adaptation and mitigation strategies into national development policies and budgets.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The GCCA is indeed an initiative of the European Union, established to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries on climate change.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: A primary objective of the GCCA is to provide technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The GCCA is coordinated by the European Commission, not by the World Resources Institute (WRI) or the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Consider the following statements in respect of Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
- TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
TRAFFIC is a joint initiative of WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature) and IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature), not a bureau under UNEP. Its mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten the conservation of nature.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: TRAFFIC is not a bureau under UNEP; it is a joint programme of WWF and IUCN established in 1976.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: TRAFFIC's mission is indeed to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature and works to promote sustainable and legal wildlife trade.
In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
- Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
- Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
- Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
All three options represent viable geological sites for carbon sequestration, which is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide to mitigate global warming. These geological formations possess the necessary characteristics—porosity, permeability, and secure cap rocks—to safely store CO₂ underground for extended periods.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams can store CO₂ through a process called coal seam carbon sequestration, where CO₂ is adsorbed onto the coal matrix, potentially displacing methane in the process.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Depleted oil and gas reservoirs are proven storage sites as they have already trapped hydrocarbons for millions of years, indicating their capacity to securely contain injected CO₂ with existing infrastructure.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Subterranean deep saline formations (aquifers) are among the most promising and abundant carbon storage sites globally, offering vast storage capacity far below freshwater resources with minimal environmental risk.
Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
The Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) was launched by the Reserve Bank of India on 13 June 2016 to address large stressed assets in the corporate sector. The scheme enabled deep financial restructuring of big debt-laden projects by allowing banks to convert part of the debt into equity, thereby restoring the viability of critical sectors including infrastructure.
✅ Option 2 – Correct: S4A is indeed an RBI scheme for financial restructuring of stressed corporate entities by allowing lenders to acquire equity.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: The scheme is not related to ecological costs of developmental schemes.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: S4A is not a disinvestment plan but a debt restructuring mechanism.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: While related to stressed assets, S4A is a separate RBI scheme, not a provision in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.
Which of the following is the most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.
The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system that enables instant bank-to-bank transfers directly through mobile applications without requiring intermediate instruments like mobile wallets. By allowing users to make payments directly from their bank accounts, UPI eliminates the need to first load money into a separate wallet for online transactions.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: UPI enables direct bank-to-bank transfers through mobile apps, removing the need for intermediate mobile wallets as users can pay directly from their bank accounts.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While UPI promotes digital transactions and financial inclusion, it will not completely replace physical currency in about two decades as cash continues to play a significant role in the Indian economy, especially in rural areas and for small transactions.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: UPI is a domestic payment infrastructure designed for retail payments and has no direct causal relationship with Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows, which depend on factors like economic policies, business environment, and regulatory framework.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) schemes primarily use Aadhaar-linked bank accounts and NEFT/RTGS systems for subsidy distribution, not UPI, though UPI may facilitate some secondary transactions.
The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Developing solar power production in our country
Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) is a policy mandate that requires a certain percentage of components or equipment used in a project to be manufactured domestically. In India, DCR has been prominently used in the solar power sector, where the government mandated that solar power developers use a specified percentage of domestically manufactured solar cells and modules in their projects. This policy was designed to promote indigenous solar manufacturing capabilities and reduce import dependence, though it faced challenges at the WTO due to trade obligations. The term is most commonly associated with the National Solar Mission and solar power development in India.
The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships PPPs to enable mobilization of the private sector and institutional investor capital.
The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a partnership led by the World Bank Group that brings together governments, multilateral development banks, private sector investors, and financiers to design and structure bankable infrastructure projects. It specifically focuses on facilitating complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) in emerging markets and developing economies to mobilize private sector and institutional investor capital. The GIF provides technical advisory support and works to ensure that infrastructure projects are properly structured to attract private investment, making Option 2 the correct answer.
UPSC Prelims 2017 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Indian Polity
22 Qs (22%)Indian Economy
18 Qs (18%)Environment & Ecology
15 Qs (15%)Current Affairs
9 Qs (9%)Science & Technology
9 Qs (9%)Modern History
7 Qs (7%)International Relations
6 Qs (6%)Indian Geography
5 Qs (5%)Indian Art & Culture
5 Qs (5%)World Geography
2 Qs (2%)Medieval History
1 Qs (1%)Ancient History
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2017?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2017?
- Indian Polity: 22 questions (22%)
- Indian Economy: 18 questions (18%)
- Environment & Ecology: 15 questions (15%)
- Current Affairs: 9 questions (9%)
- Science & Technology: 9 questions (9%)
- Modern History: 7 questions (7%)
- International Relations: 6 questions (6%)
- Indian Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 5 questions (5%)
- World Geography: 2 questions (2%)
- Medieval History: 1 questions (1%)
- Ancient History: 1 questions (1%)