UPSC CSE Prelims
Environmental Governance in India Previous Year Questions (PYQs)

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect

This question tests knowledge about the Indian Flying Fox and the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. While the current model answer states both statements are incorrect, the correct answer as per the original marking was Option 3, indicating Statement-I was considered correct at the time of the exam.

✅ Statement-I – Correct (as per original context): Historically, the Indian Flying Fox was placed under Schedule V (vermin category) in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, before the 2022 amendments abolished this schedule.

❌ Statement-II – Incorrect: The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus medius) is a large frugivorous bat that feeds on fruits, nectar, and flowers, not on blood. Blood-feeding behavior is characteristic of vampire bats found in Latin America, not fruit bats.

📝 Short Notes: Indian Flying Fox and Wildlife Protection

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 only

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides species-specific protection based on scheduling, which applies uniformly regardless of location. Only Statement 2 is legally accurate, while Statements 1 and 3 contain critical inaccuracies regarding ownership and conditions for capture/killing.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Section 39 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act specifies that only animals in Schedules I to IV are government property; vermin species (Schedule V) are excluded, making the claim of 'sole property' legally incorrect.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Protected status under the Wildlife (Protection) Act is determined by the animal's listing in the Schedules and applies uniformly whether the animal is found inside Protected Areas or outside in human-dominated landscapes.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Section 11 requires the Chief Wildlife Warden to be satisfied that the animal 'has become dangerous' to human life (actual danger), not merely apprehended danger; mere fear or anticipation is insufficient legal ground for capture or killing.

📝 Short Notes: Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 - Key Provisions

• Section 11: Chief Wildlife Warden may permit capture/killing only when animal has become dangerous to human life or is disabled/diseased beyond recovery
• Section 39: Wild animals listed in Schedules I-IV are property of State/Central Government
• Protection applies uniformly: Inside and outside Protected Areas for all scheduled species
• Protected Areas: Include National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves
• Recent Amendment (2022): Introduced Schedule VI for prohibited plants and enhanced penalties

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Central Ground Water Authority

The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, to regulate and control the development and management of groundwater resources in the country. It is the only body among the given options that derives its statutory authority directly from the EPA, 1986.

❌ Option 1 – Central Water Commission (Incorrect): Established in 1945 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti for water resource planning and development, but not constituted under EPA, 1986.

❌ Option 2 – Central Ground Water Board (Incorrect): A subordinate organization established in 1970 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, functioning as the technical arm of CGWA, but not constituted under EPA, 1986.

❌ Option 4 – National Water Development Agency (Incorrect): An autonomous agency established in 1982 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, focusing on interstate water disputes and interlinking of rivers, but not constituted under EPA, 1986.

📝 Short Notes: Water Resource Management Bodies in India

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — A licence is required to cultivate that plant.

Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, specifically lists plant species for which cultivation and planting are prohibited without obtaining a proper licence from the authorities. This provision ensures regulated cultivation of certain sensitive plant species to prevent their exploitation and maintain ecological balance. The other options are incorrect as Schedule VI does not prohibit cultivation entirely, nor does it relate to GMOs or invasive species classification.

📝 Short Notes: Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 - Schedules

• 2022 Amendment: Reduced schedules from six to four, merging and reclassifying species for better alignment with CITES requirements.
• CITES Integration: Schedule IV now specifically covers species listed under CITES, facilitating international trade regulation and conservation commitments.
• Purpose of Schedule VI: To control cultivation of rare and threatened plant species, prevent commercial exploitation, and ensure sustainable use through licensing mechanism.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 only

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Central Government to lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants but does not explicitly mandate public participation requirements. While public participation is important in environmental protection, it was introduced through subsequent EIA Notifications issued under the Act's authority.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The EPA, 1986 does not explicitly state requirements for public participation or the procedure and manner in which it is sought. These provisions were introduced later through EIA Notifications (1994, 2006) issued under the Act.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Section 3(2)(iv) of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 specifically empowers the Central Government to lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.

📝 Short Notes: Environment Protection Act, 1986

• Enactment: The Environment Protection Act was enacted in 1986 following the Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984) to provide a comprehensive framework for environmental protection.
• Umbrella Legislation: It serves as an umbrella Act that provides a framework for coordination of activities of various central and state authorities under existing laws.
• Powers of Central Government (Section 3): Includes power to take measures to protect and improve environmental quality, lay down emission/discharge standards, restrict areas for industries, lay down procedures for handling hazardous substances, and examine manufacturing processes.
• Rule-making Power: The Act empowers the government to make rules for various aspects including standards for emissions, prohibition/restriction of handling hazardous substances, and procedures for environmental impact assessment.
• Public Participation: Not explicitly mentioned in the Act itself but incorporated through EIA Notifications issued under the Act's authority, particularly the 1994 and 2006 notifications which mandated public hearings for certain projects.
• Penalties: Provides for imprisonment up to 5 years and/or fine up to ₹1 lakh for violations, with additional fines for continuing violations.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 only

The question tests the distinction between NGT (a judicial body) and CPCB (a regulatory body). Only statement 2 correctly describes their respective roles, while statement 1 incorrectly claims CPCB was created by executive order.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Both NGT and CPCB are statutory bodies established by Acts of Parliament. NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, while CPCB was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Neither was created by executive order.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: NGT is a specialized environmental court that provides fast-track justice for environmental disputes and reduces litigation burden on higher courts, whereas CPCB is a regulatory body responsible for monitoring and controlling pollution, including maintaining cleanliness of water bodies and improving air quality.

📝 Short Notes: NGT vs CPCB

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3

All three animals—Gharial, Indian wild ass, and Wild Buffalo—are listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides the highest level of protection. Schedule I species cannot be hunted by any person except under exceptional provisions such as disease control or to prevent human attacks, making hunting of all three animals illegal under normal circumstances.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Gharial is listed in Schedule I and enjoys absolute protection from hunting.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Indian wild ass is listed in Schedule I and is protected from hunting.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Wild Buffalo is listed in Schedule I and cannot be hunted except under specific legal provisions.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Ceiling fans are covered under the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) Star Labeling program. They have been included to promote energy-efficient appliances and reduce household electricity consumption.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Electric geysers (storage water heaters) are part of the mandatory BEE Star Labeling scheme. The star rating indicates their energy performance, helping consumers choose efficient models.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Tubular fluorescent lamps (TFLs) are included in the BEE labeling program to encourage the use of energy-efficient lighting and reduce overall power consumption in residential and commercial spaces.

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company established in 1987 under the Companies Act, 1956, under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: IREDA is registered as a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and provides term loans for renewable energy and energy efficiency projects.

Detailed Explanation:

Biosphere reserves are specifically designed to conserve biodiversity while integrating traditional human life and sustainable development.

They operate through a three-zone system: Core Zone (strict protection), Buffer Zone (limited research/education), and Transition Zone (human settlements, agriculture, and economic activities permitted).

National parks and wildlife sanctuaries prohibit or severely restrict human habitation, while botanical gardens serve only ex-situ conservation without human integration.

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: IWDP focuses on soil and moisture conservation, implementing measures like contour bunding, terracing, and vegetative barriers that effectively prevent soil runoff and erosion.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: IWDP does not involve interlinking of rivers; it works at the watershed/micro-watershed level for localized water management. River interlinking is part of the separate National River Linking Project.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: IWDP promotes rainwater harvesting structures like farm ponds, percolation tanks, check dams, and nala bunds that enhance groundwater recharge and increase the water table.

✅ Statement 4 – Correct: IWDP emphasizes afforestation, pasture development, and restoration of degraded lands, leading to regeneration of natural vegetation and improved ecological balance.

Detailed Explanation:

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, not the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006 for implementation of Project Tiger.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 and chaired by the Prime Minister (replaced by National Ganga Council in 2016).

Detailed Explanation:

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: NBA checks biopiracy and protects indigenous and traditional genetic resources under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: NBA does not directly monitor genetic modification research on crops; this is done by GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: IPR applications related to biological resources require prior approval from NBA as per Section 6 of the Biological Diversity Act.

Detailed Explanation:

National Parks in India prohibit local people from collecting or using biomass as per the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Biosphere Reserves (buffer & transition zones), Wildlife Sanctuaries (with Chief Wildlife Warden's permission), and Ramsar Wetlands (site-specific regulations) allow regulated biomass collection by local communities under certain conditions.