UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.

Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) is a flagship programme launched by the Ministry of Education (formerly MHRD) to enable higher educational institutions (HEIs) to work with rural communities.

The core objective is to identify local development challenges and devise appropriate, sustainable solutions using academic expertise and technology.

Under this programme, participating institutions adopt clusters of villages and engage in activities related to infrastructure development, livelihood enhancement, health, education, and skill development.

This creates a symbiotic relationship where academic institutions contribute to rural transformation while gaining practical insights for research and pedagogy. The programme emphasizes participatory rural development, leveraging institutional knowledge for inclusive growth.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: National Career Service (NCS) is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour & Employment, not the Department of Personnel and Training. It is implemented through the Directorate General of Employment & Training under the Ministry of Labour & Employment.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: NCS has been launched in Mission Mode, but it aims to improve employment opportunities for all citizens, not specifically for uneducated youth. The platform provides career-related services including job matching, career counselling, vocational guidance, information on skill development courses, apprenticeships, and internships to jobseekers across all education levels. It connects jobseekers with employers and training providers through a single digital platform.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — 1 and 2 only

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Creating awareness about malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers is a core objective of the National Nutrition Mission (POSHAN Abhiyaan), launched in 2018 to address malnutrition comprehensively.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Reducing anaemia among young children (6 months to 6 years), adolescent girls, and women (15-49 years) is an explicit target of the mission, with specific goals to reduce anaemia prevalence by 3% per annum.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: While promoting millets, coarse cereals, and unpolished rice aligns with nutritional goals, these are not explicitly stated as objectives of the National Nutrition Mission. The mission focuses on behavior change, service delivery, and convergence rather than specific food promotion.

❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Promoting consumption of poultry eggs is not an objective of the National Nutrition Mission. The mission emphasizes adequate nutrition through diverse diets but does not mandate specific food items like eggs.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.

The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) Scheme is a key component of the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). It aims to certify and recognize the skills acquired by workers through informal or non-formal means, particularly those gained through work experience rather than formal training. The scheme is particularly relevant for construction workers, domestic workers, and others in the unorganized sector who have learned skills through traditional channels or on-the-job experience. RPL provides them with formal certification aligned to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), enhancing their employability and enabling them to access better opportunities. The scheme does not focus on distance learning enrollment (Option 2), job reservation in PSUs (Option 3), or certifying trainees under formal NSDP programs (Option 4), as those who complete formal training receive regular certification.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — World Economic Forum

The Global Gender Gap Index is an annual report published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) since 2006. It measures gender-based disparities across four key dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. The index ranks countries based on their progress towards gender parity, with scores ranging from 0 (complete disparity) to 1 (complete parity). India's ranking has varied over the years, typically placing in the lower half among assessed nations. The report is released annually as part of WEF's global initiatives on inclusive growth.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 only

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: NSQF allows learners to acquire competency certification through multiple pathways, not just formal learning. It recognizes formal learning (schools/colleges), non-formal learning (skill development programs), and informal learning (on-the-job training, self-learning). This flexibility is a core feature of NSQF.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: A key objective of NSQF is enabling mobility between vocational and general education. By establishing equivalence between vocational qualifications and general education levels (across 10 levels), NSQF allows individuals with vocational skills to pursue higher education and vice versa, creating a more flexible education ecosystem.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — 2 only

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Vidyanjali Yojana does not deal with foreign educational institutions opening campuses in India. It is focused on improving existing government schools.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Vidyanjali Yojana is a school volunteer initiative launched by the Ministry of Education to improve the quality of education in government schools. It facilitates community and private sector participation by connecting volunteers (professionals, retired teachers, subject experts, NGOs) with government schools to contribute their time, knowledge, and skills.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The primary purpose of Vidyanjali is to enable volunteer participation through time and expertise, not monetary contributions. While volunteers may support various activities, the scheme's core focus is on non-monetary contributions like teaching support, mentoring, skill development, and enrichment activities.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments

✅ Option 3 – Correct: The National Pension System (NPS) was introduced by the Central Government on January 1, 2004. Subsequently, various State Governments adopted the NPS architecture for their employees. State Government employees joining after the date of notification by their respective State Governments are mandatorily covered under NPS.

❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: NPS is available to all Indian citizens including both Resident Indians and Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), not just resident Indian citizens.

❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: The eligibility age for joining NPS is 18 to 70 years, not 21 to 55 years. The age range was expanded over time to include a broader segment of citizens.

❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: NPS specifically excludes Armed Forces personnel. Additionally, the correct implementation date for Central Government employees was January 1, 2004, not April 1, 2004.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Observation and understanding of the Universe

All four terms are fundamental concepts in cosmology and theoretical physics. Event Horizon is the boundary around a black hole beyond which nothing can escape its gravitational pull. Singularity refers to a point of infinite density and gravity, such as at the center of a black hole or the initial state of the Big Bang. String Theory is a theoretical framework attempting to unify all fundamental forces of nature by describing particles as vibrating strings. Standard Model is the established theory in particle physics describing fundamental particles and three of the four forces (excluding gravity). These concepts are central to understanding the structure, origin, and evolution of the Universe, making Option 1 the correct answer.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Zika virus is primarily transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito in tropical regions. This is the same mosquito species that transmits dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever. The mosquito becomes infected when it bites an infected person and can then transmit the virus to other people through subsequent bites.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Sexual transmission of Zika virus is well-documented and possible. The virus can be transmitted through vaginal, anal, and oral sex. It can persist in semen for several months, making sexual transmission a significant route of infection even in areas without active mosquito transmission. Pregnant women are particularly at risk as Zika can cause severe birth defects.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Service providers are legally mandated to report cybersecurity incidents to CERT-In (Indian Computer Emergency Response Team) under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000, and the Information Technology (The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team and Manner of Performing Functions and Duties) Rules, 2013.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Data centres are explicitly listed among the entities required to mandatorily report cybersecurity incidents to CERT-In under the IT (CERT-In) Rules, 2013. This includes incidents like data breaches, unauthorized access, and system compromises within six hours of noticing or being brought to notice.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Body corporates (companies and organizations) are required to report specified cybersecurity incidents to CERT-In under the IT Act, 2000, and associated rules. This obligation ensures timely response to cyber threats affecting business operations and sensitive data.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 only

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Smart India Hackathon (SIH) is not a scheme for developing Smart Cities. It is a nationwide initiative to harness creative digital technology solutions from students and innovators to solve pressing problems faced by ministries, departments, and industries.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: SIH 2017 was launched as a unique open platform to identify new digital technology innovations for addressing challenges across various sectors including agriculture, healthcare, education, clean energy, water resources, and waste management. It brings together students, startups, and tech enthusiasts to develop practical solutions.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: SIH is not focused solely on making financial transactions digital. While digital payments may be one potential solution area, the hackathon covers a broad spectrum of national challenges requiring innovative technological interventions, not just financial digitization.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — 1, 2 and 3

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: OLEDs use thin films of organic compounds that can be deposited on flexible plastic or metal foil substrates, unlike LCDs which require rigid glass panels. This enables bendable and foldable displays.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The inherent flexibility of OLED technology allows fabrication of roll-up displays that can be embedded in clothing, wearables, and other flexible surfaces—applications impossible with rigid LCD technology.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: OLED pixels emit light independently without requiring a backlight, and the organic layers can be made semi-transparent. This enables creation of transparent displays where the screen is see-through when not displaying content, unlike LCDs which are always opaque due to their backlight and liquid crystal structure.

All three statements correctly identify key advantages of OLED over LCD technology.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3

✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Lipstick formulations have been found to contain lead, a heavy metal that poses potential health risks. Studies have detected trace amounts of lead in various lipstick brands, making this a valid concern.

✅ Pair 2 – Correct: Brominated vegetable oils (BVO) are used in some soft drinks as emulsifiers to keep citrus flavoring evenly distributed. BVO has been banned in several countries due to health concerns and potential toxicity.

✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a flavor enhancer commonly used in Chinese fast food and various Asian cuisines. While controversial, MSG is used to enhance savory taste, though its safety remains debated.

All three pairs are correctly matched.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 3 only

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Algae-based biofuel production is not restricted to seas. Algae can be cultivated on land using open ponds, closed photobioreactors, or wastewater treatment systems. Continental production is technically feasible and widely practiced.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Setting up algae biofuel facilities requires advanced biotechnology, sophisticated engineering for photobioreactors, precise cultivation control systems, and extraction technology. This high-tech infrastructure poses significant challenges for developing countries with limited technical expertise and capital.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Large-scale algae cultivation facilities need extensive land/water resources, significant energy inputs, and water usage. These requirements can trigger ecological concerns (biodiversity impact, water depletion) and social issues (land acquisition, displacement of communities, competition with food production).

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — To detect gravitational waves

The evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA), now known as LISA (Laser Interferometer Space Antenna), is a space-based gravitational wave observatory designed to detect low-frequency gravitational waves from cosmic sources. It uses laser interferometry to measure tiny distortions in spacetime caused by passing gravitational waves from events such as merging supermassive black holes, extreme mass ratio inspirals, and galactic binary systems. This ESA-led mission (with NASA contribution) operates in the millihertz frequency range, complementing ground-based detectors like LIGO that observe higher frequencies. The detection of gravitational waves opens a new window to observe the universe and test Einstein's general relativity in extreme conditions.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Genome sequencing identifies specific genetic markers linked to desirable traits such as disease resistance and drought tolerance. This enables targeted breeding programs to develop improved crop varieties with enhanced resilience.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Traditional crop breeding takes years or even decades. Genome sequencing accelerates this process by allowing precise identification of beneficial genes, enabling marker-assisted selection and reducing the time required to develop new varieties from 10-15 years to just 3-5 years.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Genome sequencing helps decode the genetic interactions between host plants and pathogens. Understanding these host-pathogen relationships enables scientists to develop targeted disease management strategies and breed crops with enhanced resistance mechanisms.

All three statements correctly describe immediate applications of genome sequencing in Indian agriculture, making it a powerful tool for crop improvement and food security.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Reproductive cloning of animals

Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) is a cloning technique where the nucleus of a somatic (body) cell from a donor organism is transferred into an enucleated egg cell (an egg whose nucleus has been removed). The reconstructed egg is then stimulated to divide and develop into an embryo, which is implanted into a surrogate mother to produce a genetically identical clone of the donor organism. This process is called reproductive cloning.

Famous example: Dolly the sheep (1996) was the first mammal successfully cloned using SCNT technology. This technology has applications in livestock breeding, conservation of endangered species, and biomedical research. However, it is not related to biolarvicides, biodegradable plastics, or producing disease-free organisms through this specific mechanism.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

The Butler Committee was appointed in December 1927 under the chairmanship of Sir Harcourt Butler to examine the relations between the British Government of India and the Indian Princely States.

The committee aimed to clarify and improve the nature of paramountcy (supreme authority of the British Crown over princely states) and address grievances of the rulers.

It recommended that Indian States should deal directly with the Crown through the Viceroy, not through the Government of India.

The committee's work was significant in defining the political relationship between the paramount power and native states during the British Raj.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 3 only

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Radhakanta Deb was indeed the first President of the British Indian Association, which was formed in October 1851 in Calcutta through the merger of the Landholders' Society and the Bengal British India Society.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty founded the Madras Native Association in 1852, not the Madras Mahajana Sabha. The Madras Mahajana Sabha was established later in May 1884 by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer, and P. Anandacharlu.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Surendranath Banerjee, along with Anandamohan Bose, founded the Indian Association (Indian National Association) in 1876. It was one of the most significant pre-Congress nationalist organizations aimed at building public opinion on political issues.