UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2017 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
The fundamental feature of the parliamentary form of government is the principle of collective responsibility, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is directly accountable to the legislature. According to Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and can remain in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the House. This ensures democratic accountability and control over the executive by elected representatives.
Why other options are incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: In a parliamentary system, the executive and legislature are interdependent, not independent. Separation of powers is a feature of the Presidential system.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: The Presidential system, not the parliamentary system, is known for continuity of policy due to fixed tenure. Parliamentary governments can change frequently through votes of no confidence.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: In a parliamentary system, the head of government (Prime Minister) can be changed through a vote of no confidence or party leadership change without a general election, unlike in a Presidential system.
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
- A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements about private member's bills in the Indian Parliament are incorrect. A private member's bill is introduced by any MP who is not a minister, regardless of whether they are elected or nominated, not specifically by nominated members only. Additionally, private member's bills have been passed in Parliament's history, with 14 such bills enacted since 1952, though the last one was passed in 1970.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: A private member's bill can be presented by any MP (elected or nominated) who is not a minister, not just by nominated members.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Private member's bills have been passed in Parliament's history; 14 such bills were enacted between 1952 and 1970, with the last one being the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1970.
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Privileges
Equality in society implies that all individuals have the same rights, opportunities, and status without any preferential treatment. The presence of privileges—unearned advantages or special rights enjoyed by certain groups or individuals—directly contradicts the principle of equality, as it creates hierarchies and differential treatment. Therefore, the absence of privileges is a fundamental implication of a truly equal society.
Analysis of Options:
✅ Privileges – Correct: Privileges represent special advantages given to select groups, which are incompatible with the principle of equality that demands uniform rights and opportunities for all.
❌ Restraints – Incorrect: Reasonable restraints (such as laws and regulations) are necessary to ensure equality and prevent discrimination, thus they can coexist with equality.
❌ Competition – Incorrect: Fair competition based on merit is compatible with equality, provided that all individuals have equal opportunities to compete.
❌ Ideology – Incorrect: Various ideologies can support or oppose equality; ideology itself is not inherently absent in an equal society.
🧐 Not Sure What to Study Next?
Get a personalised study plan based on your goals, time and revision needs.
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Participation of workers in management of industries
Article 43A, which mandates participation of workers in the management of industries, was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. This provision was introduced to promote industrial democracy and ensure that workers have a meaningful role in decision-making within industrial establishments. The other options—equal pay for equal work (Article 39(d)), right to work and education (Article 41), and securing living wage (Article 43)—were all part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950.
Why other options are incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Equal pay for equal work: This was already present in Article 39(d) of the original Constitution.
❌ Option 3 – Right to work, education and public assistance: This was included in Article 41 of the original Constitution.
❌ Option 4 – Securing living wage and human conditions: This was part of Article 43 in the original Constitution itself.
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
The Cabinet form of Government is a defining feature of parliamentary democracy where the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the legislature (Parliament). This principle is enshrined in Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution, which mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Why Option 3 is Correct:
Collective responsibility means that Cabinet decisions bind all ministers, who must publicly support them even if they personally disagree. If Parliament passes a vote of no confidence, the entire Council of Ministers must resign, ensuring democratic accountability and preventing arbitrary executive rule.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: The Cabinet system is not designed to minimize criticism but to ensure accountability through collective responsibility to Parliament.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: While efficiency may be a benefit, the underlying principle is collective responsibility and accountability, not merely speeding up government activities.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: The Cabinet system is not a device to strengthen the head of government's hold over people, but to ensure collective decision-making and accountability to the legislature.
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Economic liberty
The Preamble to the Constitution of India explicitly secures to all its citizens liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. However, economic liberty is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble. While the Constitution indirectly promotes economic freedom through Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), the term 'economic liberty' does not appear in the Preamble itself.
Analysis of Options:
✅ Option 1 – Liberty of thought: Explicitly mentioned in the Preamble under 'Liberty'.
❌ Option 2 – Economic liberty: Not explicitly embodied in the Preamble, making this the correct answer.
✅ Option 3 – Liberty of expression: Explicitly mentioned in the Preamble under 'Liberty'.
✅ Option 4 – Liberty of belief: Explicitly mentioned in the Preamble under 'Liberty'.
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through -
- Adjournment motion
- Question hour
- Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers through multiple mechanisms to ensure executive accountability. All three instruments mentioned—Adjournment Motion, Question Hour, and Supplementary Questions—are important parliamentary tools for scrutinizing and controlling the executive.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Adjournment Motion allows discussion on urgent matters of public importance and can be used to censure the government, thereby exercising control over the Council of Ministers.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Question Hour is a daily mechanism during which MPs question ministers on policies and administrative actions, ensuring accountability and transparency in governance.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Supplementary Questions follow the initial answer during Question Hour, allowing MPs to probe deeper and seek clarifications, thereby enhancing parliamentary control over ministerial functioning.
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
- Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
- Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
- Dissolution of the local bodies
Which of the above-given statements is correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 3 only
When President's Rule is proclaimed under Article 356, the removal of the Council of Ministers is mandatory, but the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly and local bodies are not automatic consequences. The Assembly may be kept in suspended animation or dissolved, and local bodies continue to function under constitutional provisions unless separately dissolved.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not mandatory; it may be dissolved or kept in suspended animation during President's Rule.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Removal of the Council of Ministers is always a necessary consequence when President's Rule is imposed, as the Governor takes over executive functions.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Dissolution of local bodies is not an automatic consequence of President's Rule; they continue to function independently under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Democratic decentralization
Local self-government is best understood as an exercise in democratic decentralization, which involves the transfer of powers, functions, and resources from higher levels of government to local bodies, coupled with active citizen participation through elected representatives. This ensures grassroots democracy, empowers communities to address local issues, and enables efficient service delivery at the lowest administrative level.
Why other options are incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Federalism: While local self-government operates within a federal structure, federalism primarily refers to the division of powers between the Union and State governments, not the devolution to local bodies.
❌ Option 3 – Administrative delegation: Administrative delegation involves temporary transfer of authority without constitutional backing or democratic participation, whereas local self-government has constitutional status (73rd and 74th Amendments) and involves elected representatives.
❌ Option 4 – Direct democracy: Direct democracy implies citizens directly participating in all decisions (like referendums), whereas local self-government works through elected representatives (representative democracy at the grassroots level).
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
According to Article 84 of the Indian Constitution and the Representation of the People Act, 1951, to file a nomination paper for Lok Sabha elections, a person must be a citizen of India, at least 25 years of age, and their name must be enrolled in the electoral roll of any parliamentary constituency in India. The candidate need not be a resident of the constituency from which they wish to contest; they can contest from any constituency as long as they are registered as a voter somewhere in India. This ensures that only registered voters with a stake in the electoral process can contest elections.
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — The Preamble
The Preamble to the Constitution of India serves as the introductory statement that encapsulates the vision, philosophy, and objectives of the framers of the Constitution. It reflects the aspirations and ideals envisioned by the Constituent Assembly, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, and defines the foundational principles of sovereignty, socialism, secularism, democracy, and republicanism. While Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and Fundamental Duties elaborate on specific aspects of governance and citizen responsibilities, the Preamble concisely expresses the core intent and the philosophical foundation that guided the makers of the Constitution, making it the true reflection of their mind and vision.
Consider the following statements:
- In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
- According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements contain incorrect information about India's electoral and parliamentary procedures. India follows the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system where a simple plurality (highest votes) determines the winner, not an absolute majority (50%+). The Constitution does not mandate the allocation of Speaker and Deputy Speaker posts between majority and opposition parties; both are elected by members of the House.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: India uses the FPTP system where the candidate with the highest number of votes wins, regardless of whether they secure 50% or more of the total votes polled.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Constitution does not prescribe that the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition; both positions are elected by Lok Sabha members, though by convention the Deputy Speaker is often from the opposition.
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Rights are correlative with Duties.
In the Indian constitutional framework, Rights and Duties are interdependent and complementary to each other. While Fundamental Rights (Part III) protect individual freedoms and liberties, Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) emphasize the moral and civic responsibilities of citizens toward the nation, society, and fellow citizens. Rights cannot be exercised in a vacuum; they must be balanced with corresponding duties to ensure social harmony and collective welfare. For instance, the Right to Freedom of Speech is balanced by the duty to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all people of India.
Evaluation of Options:
✅ Option 1 – Correct: Rights and Duties are correlative and interdependent, as recognized in the Indian Constitution where both Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties coexist to balance individual freedoms with social responsibilities.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Rights are not independent of society and duties; they exist within a social framework and must be exercised responsibly with awareness of corresponding duties toward others.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Both Rights and Duties are important for personality development; duties ensure that individual advancement does not come at the cost of social welfare and harmony.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Both Rights and Duties are essential for state stability; rights ensure legitimacy and consent of citizens, while duties ensure responsible citizenship.
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
- A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
- They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Fundamental Duties, enshrined in Article 51A (Part IV-A) of the Constitution, are non-justiciable and the Constitution does not provide any legislative process for their enforcement. They are moral and civic obligations, not correlative to legal duties which carry specific penalties under statutory law.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Constitution does not provide any legislative process to enforce Fundamental Duties; they are non-justiciable and enforcement mechanisms, if any, are created through separate statutes outside the constitutional framework.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Fundamental Duties are not correlative to legal duties; they are moral and civic principles without direct legal enforceability, unlike legal duties which are specific obligations with defined penalties under law.
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Constitutional Right
The right to vote and to be elected in India is a constitutional right derived from Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, which provides for universal adult suffrage for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Unlike fundamental rights which are justiciable and enforceable through courts under Article 32, the right to vote is a statutory right created by the Constitution and regulated by the Representation of the People Act. The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 years to enhance democratic participation, though this right remains subject to reasonable restrictions such as non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt practices.
At one of the places in India if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shoreline a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Chandipur
Chandipur Beach in Balasore district of Odisha is famous for its unique phenomenon where the sea recedes up to 2-5 kilometers during low tide, exposing the sea floor for several hours. This extraordinary tidal behavior occurs twice daily due to the beach's exceptionally shallow gradient and flat sea bed, allowing visitors to literally walk on the sea floor. The water returns during high tide, making it one of the most distinctive coastal features in India.
Consider the following statements:
- In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
- The Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
- Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 3 only
Only Statement 3 is correct. Pulicat Lake is spread over exactly two states (Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu), while the other two statements are incorrect regarding the number of states.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Himalayas are spread over more than five states in India. They extend across Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of Assam, West Bengal, Nagaland, Manipur, and Meghalaya.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Western Ghats are spread over six states, not five. These states are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Pulicat Lake, the second largest brackish water lagoon in India, is spread over only two states - Andhra Pradesh (approximately 84% in Tirupati district) and Tamil Nadu (approximately 16% in Tiruvallur district).
With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
- The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
- River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
- River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct regarding river Teesta. Statement 1 incorrectly claims that Teesta and Brahmaputra have the same source, while statement 3 incorrectly states that Teesta flows into the Bay of Bengal at the India-Bangladesh border.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: River Teesta originates from Pahunri glacier and Tso Lhamo Lake in North Sikkim, while Brahmaputra originates from Angsi Glacier in the Kailash range of Tibet; their sources are entirely different.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: River Rangeet originates from the Rathong Glacier in West Sikkim and is the largest tributary of river Teesta, joining it at Melli near the Sikkim-West Bengal border.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: River Teesta does not flow directly into the Bay of Bengal; instead, it joins the Brahmaputra River (Jamuna) at Fulchhari in Bangladesh, and then flows into the Bay of Bengal through the Brahmaputra system.
If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 7
To travel by road from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala), the minimum number of states one must pass through, including origin and destination, is 7. The most direct route is: Nagaland → Assam → West Bengal → Odisha → Andhra Pradesh → Tamil Nadu → Kerala. This route utilizes the Siliguri Corridor through West Bengal and follows the eastern coastal highway southward before reaching Kerala via Tamil Nadu.
With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
- An IOD phenomenon can influence El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is a climate phenomenon characterized by sea surface temperature differences between the western and eastern tropical Indian Ocean, not involving the Pacific Ocean. An IOD event can significantly modulate El Niño's impact on the Indian monsoon—a positive IOD often offsets the deficit rainfall associated with El Niño, while a negative IOD can worsen drought conditions.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: IOD is characterized by temperature differences between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Indian Ocean, not the Eastern Pacific Ocean (which relates to ENSO/El Niño).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: IOD can indeed influence El Niño's impact on the monsoon by either compensating for or exacerbating El Niño-related rainfall anomalies.
UPSC Prelims 2017 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Indian Polity
22 Qs (22%)Indian Economy
18 Qs (18%)Environment & Ecology
15 Qs (15%)Current Affairs
9 Qs (9%)Science & Technology
9 Qs (9%)Modern History
7 Qs (7%)International Relations
6 Qs (6%)Indian Art & Culture
5 Qs (5%)Indian Geography
5 Qs (5%)World Geography
2 Qs (2%)Medieval History
1 Qs (1%)Ancient History
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2017?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2017?
- Indian Polity: 22 questions (22%)
- Indian Economy: 18 questions (18%)
- Environment & Ecology: 15 questions (15%)
- Current Affairs: 9 questions (9%)
- Science & Technology: 9 questions (9%)
- Modern History: 7 questions (7%)
- International Relations: 6 questions (6%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 5 questions (5%)
- Indian Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- World Geography: 2 questions (2%)
- Medieval History: 1 questions (1%)
- Ancient History: 1 questions (1%)