UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2023 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
The 'Small Farmer Large Field' (SFLF) model is a participatory collective action approach where small and marginal farmers with contiguous land holdings voluntarily form groups to collectively perform key agricultural operations like land preparation, sowing, irrigation, and harvesting. This farmer-led model helps overcome the limitations of fragmented land holdings by achieving economies of scale in input procurement and output marketing, while individual farmers retain ownership of their land. The model was adapted from Vietnam's successful 'Large Field' approach and has been piloted in states like Odisha to address challenges faced by marginal farmers.
Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1 describes a refugee resettlement and rehabilitation program with collective farming, not the SFLF model.
• Option 3 describes corporate farming where farmers surrender land to a corporate body for a fixed term—this involves loss of operational control, unlike SFLF.
• Option 4 describes contract farming where a company provides inputs and technical support to farmers who produce specific crops for the company's requirements—this is company-driven, whereas SFLF is farmer-driven and focuses on collective operations rather than specific crop contracts.
📝 Short Notes: Small Farmer Large Field (SFLF) Model
- Origin: Adapted from the 'Large Field' model successfully implemented in Vietnam
- Objective: To help small and marginal farmers overcome constraints of land fragmentation, low bargaining power, and lack of economies of scale
- Key Feature: Farmers with contiguous land holdings voluntarily organize into groups to synchronize selected agricultural operations
- Ownership: Individual farmers retain complete ownership of their land—only operations are collectively performed
- Operations Synchronized: Land preparation, sowing, irrigation, plant protection, harvesting, and marketing
- Benefits: Economies of scale in input purchase, better bargaining power, reduced cost of cultivation, improved productivity, and better market access
- Implementation in India: Piloted in Odisha and other states as part of initiatives to support marginal farmers
- Nature: Farmer-led participatory model, not corporate-driven or contract farming
Consider the following Statements :
Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Switzerland is indeed one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value, consistently ranking first globally due to its role as a major gold refining and trading hub. However, Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world; the United States holds the largest gold reserves (approximately 8,000 tonnes), followed by Germany, Italy, and France—Switzerland ranks much lower.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: Switzerland is the world's leading exporter of gold by value, having exported $86.7B in gold in 2021, primarily due to its extensive gold refining industry.
❌ Statement-II – Incorrect: Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves; the United States has the largest reserves, followed by Germany and Italy.
📝 Short Notes: Global Gold Trade and Reserves
- Top Gold Exporters: Switzerland consistently ranks #1 in gold exports by value due to its sophisticated refining infrastructure and position as a global trading hub.
- Top Gold Reserves (2024): 1. United States (~8,000 tonnes), 2. Germany (~3,350 tonnes), 3. Italy (~2,450 tonnes), 4. France (~2,440 tonnes), 5. Russia (~2,300 tonnes).
- India's Gold Resources: Primary gold ore resources are concentrated in Bihar (44%), Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), with smaller deposits in West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, and Jharkhand.
- India's Gold Trade: India is one of the largest gold importers (800-1,000 tonnes annually), sourcing mainly from Switzerland, UAE, and South Africa, driven by jewelry and investment demand.
- Switzerland's Role: Acts as a refining center, importing raw gold, refining it to high purity standards, and re-exporting to global markets.
Consider the following markets:
- Government Bond Market
- Call Money Market
- Treasury Bill Market
- Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
Capital markets are financial markets where long-term securities (typically with maturity greater than one year) are traded, such as stocks and bonds. Money markets deal with short-term instruments (typically less than one year maturity) such as treasury bills, call money, commercial paper, etc.
✅ Government Bond Market – Correct: Government bonds are long-term debt securities (maturity ranging from 5 to 40 years) issued by governments to finance their activities, and are traded in capital markets.
❌ Call Money Market – Incorrect: The call money market is an ultra-short-term market where funds are borrowed and lent for 1 day to 14 days (typically overnight), making it part of the money market, not the capital market.
❌ Treasury Bill Market – Incorrect: Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the government with maturities of 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days, and are traded in the money market.
✅ Stock Market – Correct: The stock market involves trading of equity shares and ownership interests in companies, which are long-term instruments, making it a core component of capital markets.
📝 Short Notes: Capital Markets vs Money Markets
| Aspect | Capital Market | Money Market |
|---|---|---|
| Time Period | Long-term (> 1 year) | Short-term (< 1 year) |
| Purpose | Long-term financing and investment | Short-term liquidity management |
| Instruments | Stocks, Government Bonds, Corporate Bonds, Debentures | Treasury Bills, Call Money, Commercial Paper, Certificate of Deposit, Repos |
| Risk | Higher risk and higher return | Lower risk and lower return |
| Participants | Retail investors, institutional investors, companies | Banks, financial institutions, RBI, corporate treasuries |
| Regulation | SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) | RBI (Reserve Bank of India) |
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Consider the following pairs:
Port : Well known as
- Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company
- Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
- Visakhapatnam : Largest container port in India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two pairs
This question tests knowledge about India's major ports and their distinctive features. Out of the three pairs given, two are correctly matched while one is incorrect.
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Kamarajar Port is indeed the first major port in India registered as a company and is the only corporatized major port among the 12 major ports.
✅ Pair 2 – Correct: Mundra Port, operated by Adani Ports and SEZ Limited in Gujarat, is the largest privately owned port in India.
❌ Pair 3 – Incorrect: Visakhapatnam is not the largest container port in India; Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) in Nhava Sheva, Maharashtra, holds this distinction.
📝 Short Notes: Major Ports of India
| Port | Key Feature |
|---|---|
| Kamarajar Port (Ennore) | First major port registered as a company; 12th major port of India; located near Chennai |
| Mundra Port | Largest private port in India; operated by Adani Ports; located in Gujarat |
| JNPT (Nhava Sheva) | Largest container port in India; located in Maharashtra; handles maximum container traffic |
| Visakhapatnam Port | Major port on the east coast; handles cargo, containers, and has shipbuilding facilities |
| Chennai Port | Oldest artificial port in India; located on Coromandel Coast |
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
- It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) enable direct cross-border transactions between central banks without requiring the US dollar as an intermediary or the SWIFT messaging system. Additionally, CBDCs can be programmed with smart contracts to impose conditions such as expiration dates or restrictions on usage, making them 'programmable money.'
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: CBDCs allow peer-to-peer cross-border payments through bilateral arrangements or common platforms between central banks, bypassing the need for US dollar or SWIFT system.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: CBDCs can be programmed with conditions like time-bound spending or purpose-specific use (e.g., subsidies), making them programmable digital currency.
📝 Short Notes: Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs)
- Definition: CBDCs are digital forms of fiat currency issued and regulated by a country's central bank, representing legal tender in digital format.
- Types: Retail CBDCs (for public use) and Wholesale CBDCs (for financial institutions and interbank settlements).
- Programmability: CBDCs can incorporate smart contracts enabling conditional payments, time-bound spending, and purpose-specific usage restrictions.
- Cross-border Transactions: Enable direct central bank-to-central bank settlements, reducing dependency on correspondent banking, SWIFT, and US dollar as reserve currency.
- India's Digital Rupee (e₹): RBI launched pilot projects for both wholesale (e₹-W) and retail (e₹-R) CBDCs in 2022-23.
- Advantages: Reduced transaction costs, financial inclusion, transparency, real-time settlement, and enhanced monetary policy transmission.
- Challenges: Privacy concerns, cybersecurity risks, impact on commercial banks' deposit base, and technological infrastructure requirements.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
In the post-pandemic period, central banks worldwide implemented interest rate hikes to combat rising inflation caused by supply chain disruptions and increased demand. This action was based on the fundamental central banking principle that monetary policy tools, particularly interest rate adjustments, can effectively control inflation by reducing liquidity and dampening demand. Statement-II provides the theoretical foundation and rationale for the practical action described in Statement-I.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: Post-pandemic, many central banks including the US Federal Reserve, RBI, ECB, and Bank of England raised interest rates to combat inflation that peaked globally in 2022-23.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: Central banks operate on the principle that monetary policy, especially interest rate manipulation, can influence aggregate demand and thereby control consumer price inflation.
📝 Short Notes: Monetary Policy and Interest Rates
- Interest Rate Hikes: Central banks increase policy rates (like repo rate in India) to make borrowing expensive, reduce money supply, and curb inflation.
- Monetary Policy Transmission: Rate changes affect commercial lending rates, consumer spending, investment decisions, and ultimately aggregate demand and prices.
- Post-Pandemic Inflation: Supply chain bottlenecks, pent-up demand, fiscal stimulus, and commodity price shocks led to global inflation surge in 2021-23.
- Global Response: US Fed raised rates from near-zero to 5.25-5.50%, ECB from negative to 4%, RBI from 4% to 6.50% during 2022-23.
- Inflation Targeting: Most modern central banks follow inflation targeting framework with mandate to maintain price stability within defined bands.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
This question tests knowledge about the taxation and legal framework governing Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) in India. Statement-I contains outdated information about tax exemptions, while Statement-II correctly identifies the legal status of InvITs under SARFAESI Act.
❌ Statement-I – Incorrect: The Union Budget 2023 eliminated the tax exemption on interest income from InvITs. Currently, all income distributed by InvITs (interest, dividends, and rental income) is taxable in the hands of unitholders as per their applicable income tax slab rates.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act), which enables them to access diverse financing options and enforce security interests in case of loan defaults.
📝 Short Notes: Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
- Definition: InvITs are investment vehicles that pool funds from investors to invest in income-generating infrastructure assets like roads, power transmission lines, and pipelines.
- Regulation: Regulated by SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014; mandatory listing on stock exchanges for public InvITs.
- Structure: Consists of Sponsor (minimum 15% holding for 3 years), Trustee, Investment Manager, and Project Manager.
- Taxation (Post-Budget 2023): All distributions (interest, dividend, rental income) are taxable in hands of unitholders; no tax exemption on interest income anymore.
- Minimum Investment: ₹10-15 lakh for retail investors in public InvITs, making them suitable for institutional and HNI investors.
- SARFAESI Act Status: Recognized as borrowers under SARFAESI Act, 2002, providing legal framework for debt recovery and enforcement of security interests.
- Revenue Model: Generate income through tolls, lease rentals, and usage charges from infrastructure assets; distribute at least 90% of net cash flows to unitholders.
Consider the investments in the following assets:
- Brand recognition
- Inventory
- Intellectual property
- Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Only three
Out of the four listed assets, three are considered intangible investments: Brand recognition, Intellectual property, and Mailing list of clients. These represent non-physical assets that derive value from legal rights, reputation, and customer relationships.
✅ Brand recognition – Intangible: This is a non-physical asset representing the value associated with a brand's reputation, customer loyalty, and market recognition.
✅ Intellectual property – Intangible: This includes patents, copyrights, trademarks, and trade secrets—legally protected non-physical assets that provide competitive advantage.
✅ Mailing list of clients – Intangible: This is a customer relationship asset with economic value, as it enables direct marketing and business communication without physical form.
❌ Inventory – Tangible: Inventory consists of physical goods and raw materials held for sale or production, making it a tangible asset with measurable physical presence.
📝 Short Notes: Tangible vs. Intangible Assets
- Tangible Assets: Physical assets with material form that can be touched and seen (e.g., land, buildings, machinery, inventory, vehicles).
- Intangible Assets: Non-physical assets that derive value from legal rights, intellectual content, or relationships (e.g., patents, trademarks, goodwill, brand equity, customer lists).
- Valuation Difference: Tangible assets are easier to value based on physical attributes, while intangible assets require assessment of future economic benefits.
- Depreciation vs. Amortization: Tangible assets depreciate over time; intangible assets are amortized (except goodwill, which is tested for impairment).
- Economic Importance: In modern knowledge-based economies, intangible assets often constitute a larger share of company value than tangible assets.
Consider the following statements with reference to India:
- According to the 'Micro Small and Medium enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
- All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the Priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 Only
This question tests the understanding of MSME classification criteria and Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms. Statement 1 incorrectly states outdated investment thresholds for medium enterprises, while Statement 2 correctly identifies that all MSME loans qualify under priority sector lending as per RBI guidelines.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The investment range of ₹15-25 crore for medium enterprises does not match any official MSME classification. Under the 2020 notification, medium enterprises were defined as units with investment up to ₹50 crore and turnover up to ₹250 crore. The 2025 revision further raised these limits to ₹125 crore investment and ₹500 crore turnover.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: As per RBI's Master Direction on Priority Sector Lending, all bank credit to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualifies for priority sector classification, helping banks meet their PSL targets.
📝 Short Notes: MSME Classification & Priority Sector Lending
| Classification | MSMED Act 2006 (Original) | 2020 Notification | 2025 Revision |
|---|---|---|---|
| Micro Enterprise | Investment up to ₹25 lakh (Manufacturing) / ₹10 lakh (Services) | Investment up to ₹1 crore & Turnover up to ₹5 crore | Investment up to ₹1 crore & Turnover up to ₹5 crore |
| Small Enterprise | Investment ₹25 lakh - ₹5 crore (Manufacturing) / ₹10 lakh - ₹2 crore (Services) | Investment up to ₹10 crore & Turnover up to ₹50 crore | Investment up to ₹10 crore & Turnover up to ₹50 crore |
| Medium Enterprise | Investment ₹5 crore - ₹10 crore (Manufacturing) / ₹2 crore - ₹5 crore (Services) | Investment up to ₹50 crore & Turnover up to ₹250 crore | Investment up to ₹125 crore & Turnover up to ₹500 crore |
- Composite Criterion: Since 2020, both investment in plant & machinery/equipment AND annual turnover are considered for classification.
- Udyam Registration: Online registration portal introduced in 2020 for MSMEs based on self-declaration.
- Priority Sector Lending: RBI mandates that 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) for domestic banks and 32% for foreign banks must go to priority sectors.
- MSME Sub-targets: 7.5% of ANBC must be lent to Micro enterprises; all MSME loans count toward overall PSL achievement.
- Benefits: MSMEs receive collateral-free loans up to ₹10 lakh, lower interest rates, priority in government procurement, and protection against delayed payments.
Consider the following statements:
- The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
- Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — All three
All three statements about niger (Guizotia abyssinica) are correct. The Government of India provides MSP for niger seeds as it is one of the 14 Kharif crops under the MSP scheme. Niger is indeed cultivated as a Kharif crop, primarily in hilly and tribal areas with poor soils. Niger seed oil is traditionally used for cooking by tribal communities in states like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Niger seed is one of the 14 Kharif crops for which the Government of India announces Minimum Support Price (MSP) through the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Niger is primarily cultivated as a Kharif (monsoon season) crop in India, especially in hilly and tribal regions with poor soil conditions.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Niger seed oil is traditionally used for cooking by tribal communities in various states, and also has other uses like lighting, lubrication, and in soap making.
📝 Short Notes: Niger Crop & MSP
- Niger (Guizotia abyssinica): A minor oilseed crop belonging to the Asteraceae family, also known as ramtil or black sesame in some regions.
- Cultivation Season: Primarily grown as a Kharif crop (sown in June-July, harvested in October-November).
- Growing Regions: Mainly cultivated in Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Jharkhand.
- Soil Requirements: Can grow in poor, marginal soils; suitable for hilly and tribal areas where other crops may not thrive.
- MSP Coverage: Part of 22 mandated crops (14 Kharif + 6 Rabi + 2 other commercial crops) for which Government announces MSP.
- Uses: Oil extraction for cooking (especially by tribal communities), lighting, soap making, and industrial purposes; oil cake used as cattle feed and manure.
Consider the following:
- Demographic performance
- Forest and ecology
- Governance reforms
- Stable government
- Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only three
The Fifteenth Finance Commission used six criteria for horizontal tax devolution: Income Distance (45%), Population (15%), Area (15%), Forest and Ecology (10%), Demographic Performance (12.5%), and Tax and Fiscal Efforts (2.5%). Apart from the three mentioned criteria (population, area, and income distance), only three from the given list were used: Demographic Performance, Forest and Ecology, and Tax and Fiscal Efforts. Governance reforms and stable government were not used as criteria for horizontal tax devolution.
📝 Short Notes: Fifteenth Finance Commission - Horizontal Devolution Criteria
| Criterion | Weight (%) | Rationale |
|---|---|---|
| Income Distance | 45% | Distance of state's per capita income from the highest income state |
| Population | 15% | Based on 2011 Census data |
| Area | 15% | Higher cost of service delivery in larger areas |
| Forest and Ecology | 10% | Share of dense forest cover; environmental conservation incentive |
| Demographic Performance | 12.5% | Rewards states for controlling population growth (1971 baseline) |
| Tax and Fiscal Efforts | 2.5% | Incentive for higher tax collection efficiency |
- Period: 2021-2026 (Award Period)
- Key Change: Demographic Performance replaced 'Demographic Change' used by 14th FC
- Not Included: Governance reforms, stable government, or political stability
Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 :
- It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
- The official mascot was named 'Thambi'.
- The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
- The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
The 44th Chess Olympiad 2022 was indeed India's first time hosting this prestigious event, held in Mamallapuram near Chennai. The official mascot was correctly named 'Thambi' (Tamil for younger brother). However, the trophies are reversed: the Open section receives the Hamilton-Russell Cup, while the Women's section receives the Vera Menchik Cup (named after the first Women's World Chess Champion).
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The 44th Chess Olympiad 2022 was the first time India hosted this event, held in Mamallapuram/Chennai from July 28 to August 9, 2022.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The official mascot was named 'Thambi', a Tamil word meaning 'younger brother', representing Tamil Nadu's culture and hospitality.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Open section trophy is the Hamilton-Russell Cup, not the Vera Menchik Cup.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Women's section trophy is the Vera Menchik Cup, not the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
📝 Short Notes: Chess Olympiad Trophies
| Section | Trophy Name | Named After |
|---|---|---|
| Open Section | Hamilton-Russell Cup | Frederick Hamilton-Russell (British diplomat and chess patron) |
| Women's Section | Vera Menchik Cup | Vera Menchik (first Women's World Chess Champion, 1927-1944) |
- 44th Chess Olympiad 2022: First held in India at Mamallapuram, Tamil Nadu (July 28 – August 9, 2022)
- Record Participation: Nearly 190 teams in Open and over 160 teams in Women's section
- First-ever Torch Relay: The Olympic torch was carried across multiple Indian cities before the event
- Multiple Indian Teams: As host nation, India fielded multiple teams in both sections
- Winners 2022: Open section - Uzbekistan; Women's section - Ukraine
With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:
Literary work: Author
- Devichandragupta: Bilhana
- Hammira-Mahakavya: Nayachandra Suri
- Milinda-panha: Nagarjuna
- Nitivakyamrita: Somadeva Suri
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
This question tests the correct pairing of ancient Indian literary works with their respective authors. Out of the four given pairs, only two are correctly matched—Hammira-Mahakavya with Nayachandra Suri and Nitivakyamrita with Somadeva Suri.
❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Devichandraguptam was authored by Vishakhadatta, a renowned Sanskrit playwright, not by Bilhana who was a later Kashmiri poet famous for Vikramankadevacharita.
✅ Pair 2 – Correct: Hammira-Mahakavya was indeed composed by Nayachandra Suri, a Jain scholar and poet, celebrating the valor of Chauhan ruler Hammiradeva.
❌ Pair 3 – Incorrect: Milinda-Panha (Questions of King Milinda) records dialogues between Buddhist monk Nagasena and Indo-Greek King Menander (Milinda), not Nagarjuna who was a later Mahayana philosopher.
✅ Pair 4 – Correct: Nitivakyamrita, a work on political ethics and wisdom, was written by Somadeva Suri, a Jain scholar.
📝 Short Notes: Ancient Indian Literary Works and Authors
| Literary Work | Actual Author | Period/Tradition | Key Features |
|---|---|---|---|
| Devichandraguptam | Vishakhadatta | 5th-6th century CE | Sanskrit drama about Chandragupta II and Dhruvadevi |
| Hammira-Mahakavya | Nayachandra Suri | 15th century CE, Jain | Epic poem on Chauhan ruler Hammiradeva's heroism |
| Milinda-Panha | Anonymous (records Nagasena's dialogues) | 2nd century BCE-1st century CE, Theravada Buddhism | Philosophical dialogue on Buddhist concepts |
| Nitivakyamrita | Somadeva Suri | 10th century CE, Jain | Ethical maxims and political wisdom |
- Bilhana: 11th-century Kashmiri poet, authored Vikramankadevacharita and Caurapancasika
- Nagarjuna: 2nd-century CE Mahayana Buddhist philosopher, founder of Madhyamaka school; authored Mulamadhyamakakarika
- Nagasena vs Nagarjuna: Often confused—Nagasena was a Theravada monk (2nd century BCE), while Nagarjuna was a Mahayana philosopher (2nd century CE)
- Vishakhadatta: Also authored Mudrarakshasa, a political drama about Chandragupta Maurya and Chanakya
- Jain Literary Contributions: Both Nayachandra Suri and Somadeva Suri represent the rich tradition of Jain scholarship in ethics, politics, and literature
Consider the following pairs :
Site : Well known for
- Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
- Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
- Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
Out of the three given pairs, two are correctly matched. Bhaja is correctly associated with Buddhist cave shrines (2nd century BC rock-cut caves near Pune), and Sittanavasal is correctly known for Jain cave shrines (ancient Jain monument in Tamil Nadu). However, Besnagar (Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh) is not particularly known for a Shaivite cave shrine; it is more famous for the Heliodorus Pillar, an ancient Garuda pillar dedicated to Lord Vishnu, along with remains of Buddhist, Jain, and Hindu temples.
✅ Pair 1 (Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine) – Incorrect: Besnagar (Vidisha) is primarily known for the Heliodorus Pillar (Garuda pillar dedicated to Vishnu), not for a Shaivite cave shrine.
✅ Pair 2 (Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine) – Correct: Bhaja Caves in Maharashtra are well-known rock-cut Buddhist caves dating to the 2nd century BC.
✅ Pair 3 (Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine) – Correct: Sittanavasal in Tamil Nadu is famous for its ancient Jain cave shrine with beautiful frescoes.
📝 Short Notes: Famous Cave Shrines of India
| Site | Location | Religious Association | Key Features |
|---|---|---|---|
| Bhaja Caves | Maharashtra (near Pune) | Buddhist | 22 rock-cut caves, 2nd century BC, Hinayana architecture |
| Sittanavasal | Tamil Nadu (Pudukottai) | Jain | Ancient Jain cave temple with frescoes, Ardhanari cave |
| Elephanta Caves | Maharashtra (Mumbai) | Shaivite (Hindu) | UNESCO site, famous Trimurti sculpture of Shiva |
| Ajanta Caves | Maharashtra (Aurangabad) | Buddhist | UNESCO site, 30 caves with paintings and sculptures |
| Ellora Caves | Maharashtra (Aurangabad) | Buddhist, Hindu, Jain | 34 caves, Kailasa temple (Cave 16), UNESCO site |
| Badami Caves | Karnataka | Hindu & Jain | 4 caves, Chalukyan architecture, 6th century |
| Udayagiri Caves | Madhya Pradesh (Vidisha) | Hindu (Vaishnavite) | Gupta period, Varaha sculpture |
Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
'Vattakirutal' (also spelled 'Vatakkiruthal') was a ritualistic practice mentioned in Sangam literature where a defeated king would fast unto death to preserve his honor and dignity. This practice reflected the warrior ethos of ancient Tamil society, where death with honor was preferred over the humiliation of defeat and capture. The term literally means 'sitting facing north' and involved the king abstaining from food and water until death, demonstrating ultimate commitment to his code of honor.
📝 Short Notes: Sangam Literature & Society
- Sangam Period: Refers to ancient Tamil literature composed roughly between 300 BCE and 300 CE, named after the legendary 'Sangam' (assembly) of Tamil poets.
- Warrior Culture: Sangam poems, especially those in 'Purananuru' (one of the Pattuppattu collections), extensively describe warfare, valor, and the code of honor among Tamil kings and warriors.
- Vattakirutal: A ritual suicide by fasting, undertaken by defeated kings or warriors to avoid dishonor; sitting facing north was considered the direction of death.
- Social Values: Honor, courage, and self-respect were paramount; capture by enemies or submission was seen as worse than death.
- Other Sangam Practices: Various customs like 'Sati' (though less common), hero stones (Nadu Kal), and elaborate funeral rites for warriors are mentioned in Sangam texts.
Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most Spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
- Arujna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
- Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
- Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
The question asks to identify correctly matched pairs of sports awards with their descriptions. Out of the four pairs given, only Pair 1 (Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award) and Pair 3 (Dronacharya Award) are correctly matched, making the correct answer 'Only two'.
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is indeed given for the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of the last four years.
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Arjuna Award is given for outstanding performance over the previous four years (not lifetime achievement); the Dhyan Chand Award is given for lifetime achievement in sports.
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Dronacharya Award is correctly described as an award to honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams.
❌ Pair 4 – Incorrect: Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar is given to corporate entities, NGOs, and sports bodies for sports promotion and development (not to individual sportspersons after retirement).
📝 Short Notes: National Sports Awards of India
| Award Name | Purpose | Key Features |
|---|---|---|
| Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award | Highest sporting honour of India | For spectacular and outstanding performance over the last 4 years; formerly known as Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award |
| Arjuna Award | Outstanding performance in sports | For good performance over 4 years with leadership, sportsmanship and discipline |
| Dronacharya Award | Excellence in coaching | For coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons to excel in international events |
| Dhyan Chand Award | Lifetime achievement in sports | For sportspersons who have contributed during their career and continue promoting sports after retirement |
| Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar | Sports promotion and development | Given to corporate entities, NGOs, and sports bodies for visible role in sports promotion |
| Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy | University sports excellence | For overall top performing university in inter-university tournaments |
In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Andhra
Dhanyakataka (modern-day Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh) was an ancient city located in the Andhra region of South India. It flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghika sect, one of the earliest Buddhist schools that later influenced the development of Mahayana Buddhism. The site is renowned for its magnificent stupa and sculptural art, making it a major pilgrimage and learning centre in ancient times.
📝 Short Notes: Ancient Buddhist Centres in India
| Buddhist Centre | Region/Location | Associated Sect/Significance |
|---|---|---|
| Dhanyakataka (Amaravati) | Andhra Pradesh | Mahasanghika sect; famous stupa with elaborate sculptures |
| Taxila | Gandhara (Pakistan) | Major learning centre; Gandhara art style |
| Nalanda | Magadha (Bihar) | Great monastic university; Mahayana Buddhism |
| Vikramashila | Magadha (Bihar) | Established by Dharmapala; Tantric Buddhism |
| Sanchi | Madhya Pradesh | Famous stupa commissioned by Ashoka |
| Dhauli | Kalinga (Odisha) | Rock edicts of Ashoka; site of Kalinga War |
With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
- The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
- Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
- Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
Out of the three statements, only statements 2 and 3 are correct. While stupas were indeed repositories of relics and served as votive and commemorative structures in Buddhist tradition, the concept of stupa itself predates Buddhism and originated as pre-Buddhist burial mounds.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The concept of stupa is not Buddhist in origin; it existed in pre-Buddhist times as burial mounds and was later adopted and transformed by Buddhism into a sacred monument.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Stupas generally served as repositories of relics, containing physical remains or belongings of the Buddha or revered Buddhist monks.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Stupas functioned as votive (devotional offerings) and commemorative structures, marking significant events in Buddha's life or expressing religious devotion.
📝 Short Notes: Stupas in Ancient India
- Pre-Buddhist Origin: Stupas originally existed as burial mounds (chaityas) in ancient India before Buddhism emerged.
- Buddhist Adoption: Buddhism adopted and transformed the stupa into a central religious monument, especially after Buddha's Parinirvana (483 BCE).
- Purpose: Stupas served triple functions - repositories of sacred relics (sarira), commemorative monuments marking important Buddhist events, and votive structures built as acts of devotion.
- Key Components: A typical stupa consists of a hemispherical dome (anda), a square railing (harmika), and an umbrella-like structure (chhatravali).
- Famous Examples: Sanchi Stupa (Madhya Pradesh), Amaravati Stupa (Andhra Pradesh), and Dhamek Stupa (Sarnath) represent different architectural styles and periods.
- Circumambulation: Devotees perform pradakshina (clockwise walking) around stupas as a form of worship and meditation.
"Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Jainism
The statement reflects the fundamental Jain doctrine that the entire cosmos is alive. According to Jain philosophy, souls (Jivas) are not restricted to humans, animals, and plants but are also present in elements like rocks (earth), running water, air, and fire. These are categorized as Sthavara Jivas (immobile living beings) or Ekendriya (one-sensed beings). This ontological belief is the foundation for the rigorous practice of Ahimsa (non-violence) in Jainism, as harming any natural element is considered harming a living soul.
📝 Short Notes: Jain Doctrine of Soul (Jiva)
- Jiva (Soul): Jainism believes that souls exist in all forms of matter—living and non-living by conventional standards.
- Classification of Jivas: Divided into two main categories: Sthavara (immobile) and Trasa (mobile).
- Ekendriya (One-sensed beings): Includes earth-bodied, water-bodied, fire-bodied, air-bodied, and plant-bodied beings—all possessing the sense of touch only.
- Multi-sensed beings: Range from two-sensed (worms) to five-sensed beings (humans, animals) with progressively more senses.
- Ahimsa (Non-violence): This belief in universal souls makes Jainism the most rigorous religion in practicing non-violence, avoiding harm to even the smallest elements.
- Anekantavada: The doctrine of non-absolutism or multiplicity of viewpoints—recognizes that truth has many aspects and no single viewpoint is complete.
- Difference from other religions: Buddhism, Shaivism, and Vaishnavism do not attribute souls to inanimate natural objects like rocks and water.
With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — ports
Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were prominent ancient port cities in South India during the Sangam period (c. 3rd century BCE to 3rd century CE). They served as vital centers for maritime trade between India and the Roman Empire, as well as Southeast Asia. Korkai (Pandya dynasty) was famous for pearl fishery, Poompuhar/Kaveripattinam (Chola dynasty) was a bustling international trade hub at the Kaveri mouth, and Muchiri/Muziris (Chera dynasty) on the Malabar Coast was the primary center for pepper trade with Rome.
📝 Short Notes: Major Sangam Period Ports
| Port | Location | Dynasty | Significance |
|---|---|---|---|
| Korkai | Thamirabarani River mouth, Tamil Nadu | Pandya | Pearl fishery; international trade |
| Poompuhar (Kaveripattinam) | Kaveri River mouth, Tamil Nadu | Early Chola | Chief port; described in Silappadikaram; bustling trade hub |
| Muchiri (Muziris) | Malabar Coast, Kerala | Chera | Major pepper trade center with Roman Empire |
| Tondi | East coast | Pandya | Important secondary port |
| Arikamedu | Near Pondicherry | — | Indo-Roman trading settlement; archaeological evidence |
- Sangam Literature Reference: The term 'Puhar' in Sangam texts specifically denotes a river mouth or harbor town where goods were discharged.
- Trade Commodities: Pepper, pearls, precious stones, spices, ivory, silk, and muslin were exported; wine, gold coins, glassware, and pottery were imported.
- International Connections: These ports connected South India with Rome, Egypt, Arabia, Southeast Asia, and China.
- Historical Significance: The prosperity of Sangam kingdoms was closely tied to maritime trade through these ports.
UPSC Prelims 2023 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Environment & Ecology
16 Qs (16%)Indian Economy
15 Qs (15%)Indian Polity
14 Qs (14%)Science & Technology
12 Qs (12%)International Relations
11 Qs (11%)World Geography
9 Qs (9%)Current Affairs
6 Qs (6%)Indian Art & Culture
4 Qs (4%)Indian Geography
4 Qs (4%)Medieval History
3 Qs (3%)Ancient History
3 Qs (3%)Modern History
3 Qs (3%)UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2023?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2023?
- Environment & Ecology: 16 questions (16%)
- Indian Economy: 15 questions (15%)
- Indian Polity: 14 questions (14%)
- Science & Technology: 12 questions (12%)
- International Relations: 11 questions (11%)
- World Geography: 9 questions (9%)
- Current Affairs: 6 questions (6%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 4 questions (4%)
- Indian Geography: 4 questions (4%)
- Medieval History: 3 questions (3%)
- Ancient History: 3 questions (3%)
- Modern History: 3 questions (3%)