UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Only three

The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy is a comprehensive initiative addressing both nutritional and non-nutritional causes of anaemia in India. Out of the four statements, three are correct while Statement 1 is incorrect as it mentions calcium supplementation instead of Iron Folic Acid supplementation.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The strategy provides prophylactic Iron Folic Acid supplementation (not calcium) to pre-school children, adolescents, pregnant women, and women of reproductive age.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The strategy promotes delayed cord clamping for at least 3 minutes (or until cord pulsations cease) at birth to improve infant iron reserves up to 6 months.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Periodic deworming is provided to children (1-19 years) bi-annually on National Deworming Day (10th February and 10th August) and to women of reproductive age and pregnant women.

✅ Statement 4 – Correct: The strategy addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis through integrated screening and treatment.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — Only two

Among the four statements about Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY), only statements 2 and 3 are correct. JSY is a centrally sponsored scheme under NHM aimed at reducing maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional deliveries among poor pregnant women through cash incentives.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: JSY is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM), not a state health department intervention.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The primary objective of JSY is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting safe institutional deliveries among poor pregnant women.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: JSY provides cash incentives to promote institutional delivery, particularly targeting BPL, SC, and ST households.

❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Providing free public health facilities to sick infants up to one year is a feature of Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK), not JSY.

📝 Short Notes: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)

• Launch Year: 2005 under National Rural Health Mission (now NHM)
• Nature: 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme with conditional cash transfer
• Primary Objective: Reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional deliveries
• Target Beneficiaries: Pregnant women from BPL families, SC/ST communities, especially in Low Performing States (LPS)
• Cash Assistance: Varies by state category (LPS vs HPS) and rural/urban areas; includes assistance for ASHA workers
• Distinction from JSSK: JSSK (2011) provides free delivery services, transport, and care for sick newborns up to 1 year; JSY focuses on cash incentives for institutional delivery

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Both statements are individually correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I. The curative focus of India's public healthcare system stems from historical policy priorities and resource allocation patterns, not from the constitutional decentralization of health services.

✅ Statement-I – Correct: India's public healthcare system has historically emphasized curative care through hospitals and dispensaries, while preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative services receive limited budgetary and infrastructural support.

✅ Statement-II – Correct: Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, 'Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries' fall under the State List (Entry 6), making States primarily responsible for organizing and delivering health services.

Relationship: The decentralized administrative structure (Statement-II) describes the constitutional framework for health governance but does not cause or explain the curative-heavy approach (Statement-I). The latter is a result of policy choices, funding models, and infrastructure development priorities rather than federalism itself.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — 1 only

Carbon fibres are extensively used in manufacturing components for automobiles and aircraft due to their exceptional strength-to-weight ratio, high stiffness, and lightweight properties. Statement 1 is correct as these materials are crucial in aerospace and automotive industries for reducing weight and improving fuel efficiency.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Carbon fibres are indeed used in manufacturing automobile and aircraft components due to their superior mechanical properties and lightweight nature.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Carbon fibres can be recycled through various methods including mechanical recycling (breaking down into smaller pieces), chemical recycling (dissolving resin to extract fibres), and thermal recycling (pyrolysis to recover fibres), though the technology is still evolving.

📝 Short Notes: Carbon Fibres

• Composition: Made from organic polymers consisting of long strings of carbon atoms bonded together in crystalline alignment
• Key Properties: High tensile strength, low weight (5 times lighter than steel), high stiffness, high temperature tolerance, low thermal expansion, and chemical resistance
• Manufacturing Process: Produced through carbonization of precursor materials like polyacrylonitrile (PAN), pitch, or rayon at high temperatures (1000-3000°C)
• Applications: Aerospace (aircraft fuselage, wings), automotive (racing cars, luxury vehicles), sports equipment (bicycles, tennis rackets), wind turbine blades, and medical devices
• Recycling Methods: Mechanical (chopping/milling), thermal/pyrolysis (burning off resin at 450-700°C), chemical (solvolysis using solvents), and electrochemical processes
• Challenges: High production cost, brittleness (low impact resistance), difficulty in recycling compared to metals, and specialized manufacturing requirements
• Environmental Consideration: While recyclability was limited earlier, modern recycling technologies are making carbon fibre composites more sustainable with recovered fibres retaining 90-95% of original properties

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements incorrectly describe the fundamental characteristics of ballistic and cruise missiles, as well as the specific types of Agni-V and BrahMos missiles. Let us evaluate each statement:

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The statement incorrectly swaps the propulsion characteristics. Ballistic missiles are rocket-powered and follow a high, arcing ballistic trajectory at supersonic or hypersonic speeds, while cruise missiles are jet-propelled, fly at lower altitudes using aerodynamic lift, and can be subsonic, supersonic, or hypersonic.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The statement incorrectly describes both missiles. Agni-V is a solid-fuelled Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) with a range exceeding 5,000 km, capable of striking targets across continents. BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile (not a ballistic missile) developed jointly by India and Russia, with a range of around 450-600 km.

📝 Short Notes: Ballistic vs Cruise Missiles

• Agni-V: India's longest-range ICBM with a strike range of over 5,000 km, three-stage solid-fuelled missile, capable of carrying nuclear warheads, enhances India's strategic deterrence.
• BrahMos: World's fastest supersonic cruise missile (Mach 2.8-3), joint venture between India (DRDO) and Russia (NPO Mashinostroyeniya), available in land, sea, air, and submarine-launched variants.
• Detection Difficulty: Cruise missiles fly low and are harder to detect by radar, while ballistic missiles have predictable trajectories once launched but are harder to intercept due to high speeds.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — All four

All four statements about mushroom properties are scientifically accurate. Mushrooms exhibit a remarkable diversity of biological properties that have been documented and utilized across medicinal, recreational, agricultural, and ecological contexts.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Medicinal mushrooms like Reishi (Ganoderma lucidum), Turkey Tail (Trametes versicolor), and Lion's Mane (Hericium erinaceus) contain bioactive compounds with immune-modulating, anti-inflammatory, and neuroprotective properties.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Psychoactive mushrooms containing psilocybin (such as Psilocybe cubensis) produce hallucinogenic effects and are being researched for therapeutic applications in treating depression and PTSD.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Insecticidal mushrooms like Metarhizium anisopliae and Beauveria bassiana produce compounds toxic to insects and are used as biological pest control agents in agriculture.

✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Bioluminescent mushrooms such as Mycena chlorophos and Panellus stipticus produce light through enzymatic reactions involving luciferin and luciferase, creating a natural glow in dark forest environments.

📝 Short Notes: Properties of Mushrooms

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — All three

An accelerometer is a sensor that measures acceleration forces, including changes in velocity, sudden movements, and changes in orientation (tilt). All three actions described in the question require the detection of acceleration changes or orientation shifts, making the accelerometer essential for their functioning.

✅ Action 1 – Car Crash Detection: Accelerometers detect the rapid deceleration during a collision, triggering immediate airbag deployment through the crash detection system.

✅ Action 2 – Laptop Free Fall Detection: Accelerometers sense the characteristic acceleration pattern of free fall (near-zero resistance), immediately parking the hard drive heads to prevent damage upon impact.

✅ Action 3 – Smartphone Tilt Detection: Accelerometers continuously monitor the device's orientation relative to gravity, enabling automatic display rotation between portrait and landscape modes.

📝 Short Notes: Accelerometer Applications

• Definition: An accelerometer is an electromechanical device that measures acceleration forces, both static (gravity) and dynamic (movement, vibration, shock).
• Working Principle: It detects changes in velocity, tilt, rotation, and vibration by measuring the displacement of a proof mass on springs when subjected to acceleration.
• Types: MEMS (Micro-Electro-Mechanical Systems) accelerometers are most commonly used in consumer electronics due to their small size and low power consumption.
• Automotive Safety: Used in airbag deployment systems, electronic stability control (ESC), anti-lock braking systems (ABS), and rollover detection.
• Consumer Electronics: Smartphones (screen rotation, step counting, gesture recognition), laptops (hard drive protection), gaming controllers (motion sensing), and fitness trackers.
• Industrial Applications: Vibration monitoring in machinery, structural health monitoring of buildings and bridges, and seismic activity detection.
• Aviation and Navigation: Inertial navigation systems, flight stabilization, and drone orientation control.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

The Wolbachia method is a biological intervention that uses Wolbachia bacteria to control mosquito-borne viral diseases, particularly dengue, Zika, chikungunya, and yellow fever. When Wolbachia is introduced into Aedes aegypti mosquitoes (which don't naturally carry it), it reduces the mosquito's ability to transmit these viruses to humans. Additionally, Wolbachia spreads through mosquito populations via maternal transmission, making it a self-sustaining and environmentally friendly approach to disease control.

📝 Short Notes: Wolbachia Method for Vector Control

• What is Wolbachia: A naturally occurring bacterium found in approximately 60% of insect species, but not in Aedes aegypti or Aedes albopictus mosquitoes.
• Mechanism: When introduced into Aedes mosquitoes, Wolbachia interferes with virus replication, reducing vector competence for dengue, Zika, chikungunya, and yellow fever viruses.
• Self-sustaining: Wolbachia is maternally inherited; infected females pass the bacteria to their offspring, ensuring its persistence in mosquito populations.
• Cytoplasmic Incompatibility: Eggs produced by uninfected females mating with Wolbachia-infected males do not hatch, giving Wolbachia-carrying mosquitoes a reproductive advantage.
• Implementation: Successfully deployed by the World Mosquito Program in countries like Australia, Indonesia, Brazil, Colombia, and India (pilot projects in Pune and Delhi).
• Advantages: Safe for humans and environment, cost-effective in the long term, does not involve genetic modification, and targets multiple diseases simultaneously.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna

Microsatellite DNA, also known as Short Tandem Repeats (STRs), are highly polymorphic DNA sequences that show significant variation among individuals and populations. These variations make them excellent genetic markers for studying evolutionary relationships, population genetics, and phylogenetic studies among different species of fauna. The high mutation rate and variability in the number of repeated sequences allow researchers to trace genetic lineages and understand evolutionary divergence patterns.

📝 Short Notes: Microsatellite DNA (Short Tandem Repeats)

• Definition: Microsatellites are short repetitive DNA sequences (typically 1-6 base pairs) repeated in tandem arrays throughout the genome.
• Polymorphism: Highly variable in repeat number between individuals, making them useful genetic markers for identification and diversity studies.
• Applications in Evolutionary Biology: Used to study genetic diversity, population structure, gene flow, and phylogenetic relationships among species.
• Other Applications: DNA fingerprinting, paternity testing, forensic analysis, conservation genetics, and breeding programs.
• Advantages: Co-dominant inheritance, high mutation rates, abundance in genomes, and ease of amplification using PCR.
• Not Related to: Stem cell transformation, clonal propagation techniques, or direct drug efficacy testing (these involve different molecular techniques).

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Only one

This question tests the knowledge of celestial objects and their correct definitions. Out of the three pairs given, only the third pair (Pulsars) is correctly matched, while the first two pairs have their descriptions reversed.

❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Cepheids are not giant clouds of dust and gas; they are actually pulsating stars that brighten and dim periodically, making them important distance markers in astronomy.

❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Nebulae are not stars that brighten and dim periodically; they are giant clouds of dust and gas in space where stars are born or remnants of dead stars.

✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Pulsars are indeed rapidly rotating neutron stars formed when massive stars exhaust their nuclear fuel and collapse in supernova explosions, emitting regular pulses of radiation.

📝 Short Notes: Celestial Objects

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

Aerial metagenomics is a cutting-edge technique that involves collecting environmental DNA (e-DNA) directly from the air using specialized filters or vacuum systems. Organisms constantly shed genetic material into their surroundings through breath, skin cells, fur, pollen, spores, and other biological particles, which can be captured from air samples. This method allows researchers to simultaneously identify and monitor multiple species—including animals, plants, fungi, and microorganisms—in a specific habitat without physical intrusion, making it a powerful non-invasive tool for biodiversity assessment.

📝 Short Notes: Metagenomics & Environmental DNA

• Metagenomics: The study of genetic material recovered directly from environmental samples (soil, water, air) without isolating individual organisms in laboratory cultures.
• Environmental DNA (e-DNA): Genetic material shed by organisms into their environment through skin cells, mucus, feces, gametes, and other biological materials.
• Aerial Metagenomics: Specifically focuses on capturing DNA from airborne particles using air filtration systems to assess biodiversity in a habitat.
• Applications: Non-invasive biodiversity monitoring, detecting rare or elusive species, tracking disease vectors, and studying ecosystem health.
• Advantages: Simultaneous detection of multiple taxa, no need for visual observation or physical capture, time and cost-efficient for large-scale surveys.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — Japan

Japan operates the QZSS (Quasi-Zenith Satellite System), which is a regional satellite navigation system designed to enhance GPS coverage and accuracy in the Asia-Oceania region, particularly over Japan. Among the given options, only Japan has its own satellite navigation system.

📝 Short Notes: Satellite Navigation Systems Worldwide

• Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS): Four operational systems - GPS (USA), GLONASS (Russia), Galileo (European Union), and BeiDou (China) - provide worldwide coverage.
• Regional Navigation Satellite Systems: NavIC/IRNSS (India) covers Indian subcontinent and surrounding region up to 1,500 km; QZSS (Japan) enhances GPS signals in Asia-Oceania region.
• GPS (USA): First operational GNSS with 24+ satellites, launched in 1978, fully operational since 1995.
• GLONASS (Russia): Developed during Soviet era, fully operational since 2011 with 24+ satellites.
• Galileo (EU): European system providing high-precision positioning, became operational in 2016.
• BeiDou (China): Completed global coverage in 2020 with 35 satellites, serves both regional and global users.
• NavIC (India): Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System with 7 satellites, operational since 2018, provides positioning accuracy better than 20 meters.
• QZSS (Japan): Quasi-Zenith Satellite System with satellites in quasi-zenith orbits, providing enhanced positioning over Japan and neighboring regions.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — All three

All three statements are correct as extremophiles (microorganisms adapted to extreme conditions) can survive and thrive in environments that would be lethal to most life forms. These include extreme temperatures both above boiling and below freezing, as well as highly acidic conditions.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Hyperthermophiles like Pyrolobus fumarii can thrive in temperatures above 100°C (boiling point of water), often found in hydrothermal vents at temperatures up to 113°C.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Psychrophiles (cryophiles) are cold-loving microorganisms capable of growth in temperatures ranging from -20°C to +10°C, well below the freezing point of water (0°C).

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Acidophiles such as Picrophilus oshimae thrive in highly acidic environments with pH below 3, with some species surviving at pH levels near 0.

📝 Short Notes: Extremophiles

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — The Charter Act of 1833

The Charter Act of 1833 was a landmark legislation that centralized administrative control in British India. It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, granting him authority over the entire British territorial possessions in India with unified civil and military powers. Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India under this Act, which also stripped the Governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers, vesting exclusive legislative authority for all of British India in the Governor-General.

📝 Short Notes: Charter Acts and Constitutional Developments

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Archaeological excavations

All five individuals mentioned—Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot—were prominent archaeologists and researchers who contributed significantly to archaeological excavations and documentation in colonial India, particularly in South India. They were instrumental in discovering and preserving Buddhist and ancient Indian heritage sites such as Amaravati, Nagarjunakonda, and Pallavaram.

📝 Short Notes: British Archaeologists in Colonial India

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

National Handloom Day is observed annually on 7th August to honour handloom weavers and highlight India's handloom industry. The date was specifically chosen to commemorate the launch of the Swadeshi Movement on 7th August 1905 at Calcutta Town Hall, which aimed at reviving domestic products and production processes in protest against the partition of Bengal.

✅ Statement-I – Correct: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day, first observed in 2015.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: The Swadeshi Movement was launched on 7th August 1905 at Calcutta Town Hall.

Since the date of National Handloom Day was deliberately chosen to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement's launch, Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I.

📝 Short Notes: Swadeshi Movement (1905-1908)

• Launch Date: 7th August 1905 at Calcutta Town Hall in response to the Partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon
• Objective: Boycott of British goods and promotion of Indian-made products (Swadeshi goods) as a form of economic nationalism
• Key Features: Boycott of foreign goods, promotion of indigenous industries (especially handloom textiles), establishment of Swadeshi stores, and mass participation
• Leaders: Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra Pal, Aurobindo Ghosh
• Methods: Public meetings, processions, formation of Swadeshi Samitis, use of Swadeshi or indigenous goods, and establishment of national educational institutions
• Impact: First mass movement involving various sections of society; laid foundation for future mass movements and promoted indigenous industries, particularly handlooms
• National Handloom Day: Instituted by Government of India in 2015, celebrated on 7th August to honor the contribution of handloom weavers and the Swadeshi spirit

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Devaraya I

Devaraya I (r. 1406-1422 CE) of the Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam/barrage across the Tungabhadra River around 1410 CE and commissioned a 24 km long canal-cum-aqueduct to bring water to the capital city of Vijayanagara. This monumental irrigation project brought immense prosperity to the kingdom, as documented by Portuguese traveler Fernão Nunes (Nuniz), who provided detailed accounts of Devaraya I's infrastructure projects. These hydraulic works stand as a testament to the advanced engineering capabilities of the Vijayanagara Empire.

📝 Short Notes: Vijayanagara Empire - Major Rulers and Contributions

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Bahadur Shah

Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese in 1535 in exchange for Portuguese military assistance against the Mughal emperor Humayun. This strategic port city on the western coast became a significant Portuguese trading and military outpost, marking an important phase in European colonial expansion in India.

📝 Short Notes: Portuguese in Gujarat

• Bahadur Shah (1526–1537): The last significant independent Sultan of Gujarat who faced Mughal pressure from Humayun.
• Treaty of Bassein (1534): Bahadur Shah agreed to cede Bassein to the Portuguese in exchange for military support against the Mughals.
• Surrender of Diu (1535): Bahadur Shah surrendered Diu to the Portuguese to secure naval and military assistance against Humayun's expanding Mughal empire.
• Portuguese Strategy: The Portuguese aimed to control strategic ports along India's western coast to dominate maritime trade routes.
• Death of Bahadur Shah (1537): He died under mysterious circumstances during negotiations with the Portuguese, possibly assassinated aboard a Portuguese ship.
• Portuguese Control: Diu remained under Portuguese control until 1961, when it was annexed by India along with Goa and Daman.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — None

None of the listed dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD (701-800 AD). The Hoysala dynasty was founded around 1006 AD, the Gahadavala dynasty around 1089 AD, the Kakatiya dynasty gained prominence around 1163 AD (though they existed as feudatories earlier around 1000 AD), and the Yadava dynasty was established around 850 AD. Even the earliest among these (Yadavas) falls outside the early eighth-century timeframe.

📝 Short Notes: Major Medieval Indian Dynasties Timeline

Early Eighth Century Context:
During the early eighth century AD, the major powers in India were:

• Pala Dynasty – Established around 750 AD in Bengal and Bihar by Gopala
• Pratihara Dynasty – Rose to prominence in the 8th century in Malwa and Rajasthan
• Rashtrakuta Dynasty – Established around 753 AD in Deccan by Dantidurga

These three dynasties engaged in the famous Tripartite Struggle for control over Kannauj during the 8th-10th centuries.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2

Both statements about the G-20 are correct. The G-20 was indeed established in 1999 as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial stability. India's 2023 G-20 presidency prioritized digital public infrastructure (DPI) as a key deliverable, emphasizing its role in inclusive growth and development.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The G-20 was originally established in 1999 as a platform for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues following the Asian financial crisis.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Digital public infrastructure was one of India's key priorities during its 2023 G-20 presidency, focusing on leveraging DPI for inclusive development and bridging the digital divide.

📝 Short Notes: G-20

• Formation: Established in 1999 as a forum for Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors after the Asian financial crisis
• First Leaders' Summit: Held in 2008 in Washington D.C. in response to the global financial crisis
• Membership: 19 countries plus the European Union and African Union (added in 2023)
• Purpose: Discusses major issues related to global economy, financial stability, climate change, and sustainable development
• India's 2023 Presidency Priorities: Digital public infrastructure, green development, women-led development, and inclusion
• Representation: G-20 members represent about 85% of global GDP, 75% of global trade, and two-thirds of the world population