UPSC Prelims 2023
Indian Economy Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 15 solved UPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Economy questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II :Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I claims India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods, which is incorrect as India's share in global merchandise exports is approximately 1.8%. Statement-II correctly states that both local and foreign companies have benefited from India's Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, which has attracted investments from domestic firms like Dixon Technologies, Lava International, and foreign companies like Samsung.
❌ Statement-I – Incorrect: India's share in global merchandise exports is around 1.8%, not 3.2%. India aims to increase this to 3% by 2027 and 10% by 2047.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: The PLI scheme has indeed been utilized by both domestic companies (Dixon Technologies, UTL, Neolyncs, Lava International, Optiemus Electronics, Micromax) and foreign companies (Samsung) operating in India to expand manufacturing capacity.
📝 Short Notes: Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme
- Launch: Introduced in 2020 to boost domestic manufacturing and reduce import dependence
- Coverage: Spans 14 sectors including electronics, pharmaceuticals, automobiles, textiles, food products, solar modules, and advanced chemistry cell batteries
- Incentive Structure: Provides financial incentives ranging from 4% to 6% on incremental sales of products manufactured in India
- Eligibility: Open to both domestic and international companies investing in India
- Objective: Make Indian manufacturers globally competitive, attract large investments, enhance exports, and create employment
- Total Outlay: Approximately ₹1.97 lakh crore across all sectors over five years
Consider the following statements:
- India has more arable area than China.
- The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
- The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Only one
Among the three statements about agricultural characteristics of India and China, only Statement 1 is correct. India indeed has more arable land than China (approximately 157 million hectares vs. 119 million hectares). However, China has both a higher proportion of irrigated land and higher agricultural productivity per hectare compared to India.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: India has more arable area (157 million hectares) than China (119 million hectares) according to FAO data.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: China has a higher proportion of irrigated land compared to India due to extensive irrigation infrastructure and projects implemented over decades.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: China's average agricultural productivity per hectare is significantly higher than India's due to better technology adoption, modern farming practices, superior infrastructure, and effective agricultural policies.
📝 Short Notes: India vs China - Agricultural Comparison
| Parameter | India | China |
|---|---|---|
| Arable Land Area | ~157 million hectares (More) | ~119 million hectares |
| Proportion of Irrigated Land | ~48-50% of arable land | ~65-70% of arable land (Higher) |
| Agricultural Productivity | Lower per hectare yield | Higher per hectare yield |
| Key Factors | Traditional practices, fragmented holdings, limited mechanization | Modern technology, better infrastructure, intensive farming |
| Cereal Yield (approx.) | ~3,000 kg/hectare | ~6,000 kg/hectare |
In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to the
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
In finance, Beta (β) is a measure of the volatility or systematic risk of a security or portfolio in comparison to the market as a whole. It is a key component of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) and quantifies how much a stock's price is expected to move relative to market movements.
Analysis of Options:
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: This describes arbitrage, which involves simultaneous buying and selling of assets across different platforms to profit from price differences.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: This refers to portfolio management strategy or asset allocation rather than the specific concept of beta.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: This describes basis risk, which occurs when a hedge does not move in perfect correlation with the underlying asset.
✅ Option 4 – Correct: Beta is indeed a numeric value measuring a stock's volatility relative to overall market changes.
📝 Short Notes: Beta in Finance
| Beta Value | Interpretation | Risk Profile |
|---|---|---|
| β = 1 | Stock moves in line with the market | Average market risk |
| β > 1 | Stock is more volatile than the market (e.g., β = 1.5 means 50% more volatile) | Higher risk, higher potential return |
| β < 1 | Stock is less volatile than the market | Defensive stocks, lower risk |
| β = 0 | No correlation with market movements | Risk-free assets (e.g., government bonds) |
| β < 0 | Inverse relationship with market (rare) | Moves opposite to market |
- Use in CAPM: Expected Return = Risk-free Rate + Beta × (Market Return - Risk-free Rate)
- Systematic Risk: Beta measures only systematic (market) risk, not unsystematic (company-specific) risk
- Portfolio Beta: Weighted average of individual stock betas in the portfolio
- Limitation: Beta is based on historical data and may not predict future volatility accurately
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Consider the following statements :
- The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
- In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
- The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
This question tests knowledge about the Self-Help Group (SHG) programme, its origins, functioning, and institutional support. Out of the three statements, two are correct while one contains factual inaccuracy regarding the initiating institution.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The SHG programme was originally initiated by NABARD in 1991-1992, not by the State Bank of India. RBI permitted SHGs to open savings bank accounts in 1993.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: In an SHG, loans are given to the group as a whole, and all members share collective responsibility for repayment of any loan taken by individual members.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Both Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) actively support SHGs through various schemes including the Financial Inclusion Fund scheme for enabling dual authentication in micro ATMs.
📝 Short Notes: Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
- Origin: NABARD initiated the SHG-Bank Linkage Programme in 1991-1992, making it the pioneer of the SHG movement in India.
- RBI's Role: In 1993, RBI permitted SHGs to open savings bank accounts, formally integrating them into the banking system.
- Structure: Typically 10-20 members from homogeneous backgrounds who pool savings and provide mutual credit support.
- Collective Responsibility: Loans are sanctioned to the group, and all members are collectively responsible for repayment.
- Institutional Support: Commercial Banks, RRBs, Cooperative Banks, and NABARD provide financial and capacity-building support to SHGs.
- Focus: Primarily targets women from economically weaker sections, promoting financial inclusion and women empowerment.
- DAY-NRLM: Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission is the flagship programme supporting SHGs.
Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
Sterilization is a monetary policy tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to neutralize the impact of foreign exchange interventions on domestic money supply. When the RBI buys foreign currency to prevent rupee appreciation, it injects rupees into the system; to sterilize this liquidity surge, the RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMO) by selling government securities, thereby absorbing the excess money. This process prevents unwanted inflationary pressures and maintains monetary stability while managing the exchange rate.
📝 Short Notes: Sterilization and Monetary Policy Tools
- Sterilization: Process of offsetting the effect of foreign exchange interventions on domestic money supply through counter-balancing monetary operations.
- Open Market Operations (OMO): Buying or selling of government securities by the central bank in the open market to regulate money supply and liquidity.
- Mechanism: When RBI buys foreign currency → Rupees injected → RBI sells bonds (OMO) → Rupees absorbed → Net effect neutralized.
- Objective: Maintain exchange rate stability without affecting domestic liquidity conditions and inflation.
- Tools Used: Primarily government securities (G-Secs), treasury bills, and other eligible instruments.
- Context: Particularly important during periods of large capital inflows or outflows to prevent exchange rate volatility while maintaining monetary policy independence.
Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
The 'Small Farmer Large Field' (SFLF) model is a participatory collective action approach where small and marginal farmers with contiguous land holdings voluntarily form groups to collectively perform key agricultural operations like land preparation, sowing, irrigation, and harvesting. This farmer-led model helps overcome the limitations of fragmented land holdings by achieving economies of scale in input procurement and output marketing, while individual farmers retain ownership of their land. The model was adapted from Vietnam's successful 'Large Field' approach and has been piloted in states like Odisha to address challenges faced by marginal farmers.
Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1 describes a refugee resettlement and rehabilitation program with collective farming, not the SFLF model.
• Option 3 describes corporate farming where farmers surrender land to a corporate body for a fixed term—this involves loss of operational control, unlike SFLF.
• Option 4 describes contract farming where a company provides inputs and technical support to farmers who produce specific crops for the company's requirements—this is company-driven, whereas SFLF is farmer-driven and focuses on collective operations rather than specific crop contracts.
📝 Short Notes: Small Farmer Large Field (SFLF) Model
- Origin: Adapted from the 'Large Field' model successfully implemented in Vietnam
- Objective: To help small and marginal farmers overcome constraints of land fragmentation, low bargaining power, and lack of economies of scale
- Key Feature: Farmers with contiguous land holdings voluntarily organize into groups to synchronize selected agricultural operations
- Ownership: Individual farmers retain complete ownership of their land—only operations are collectively performed
- Operations Synchronized: Land preparation, sowing, irrigation, plant protection, harvesting, and marketing
- Benefits: Economies of scale in input purchase, better bargaining power, reduced cost of cultivation, improved productivity, and better market access
- Implementation in India: Piloted in Odisha and other states as part of initiatives to support marginal farmers
- Nature: Farmer-led participatory model, not corporate-driven or contract farming
Consider the following Statements :
Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Switzerland is indeed one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value, consistently ranking first globally due to its role as a major gold refining and trading hub. However, Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world; the United States holds the largest gold reserves (approximately 8,000 tonnes), followed by Germany, Italy, and France—Switzerland ranks much lower.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: Switzerland is the world's leading exporter of gold by value, having exported $86.7B in gold in 2021, primarily due to its extensive gold refining industry.
❌ Statement-II – Incorrect: Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves; the United States has the largest reserves, followed by Germany and Italy.
📝 Short Notes: Global Gold Trade and Reserves
- Top Gold Exporters: Switzerland consistently ranks #1 in gold exports by value due to its sophisticated refining infrastructure and position as a global trading hub.
- Top Gold Reserves (2024): 1. United States (~8,000 tonnes), 2. Germany (~3,350 tonnes), 3. Italy (~2,450 tonnes), 4. France (~2,440 tonnes), 5. Russia (~2,300 tonnes).
- India's Gold Resources: Primary gold ore resources are concentrated in Bihar (44%), Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), with smaller deposits in West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, and Jharkhand.
- India's Gold Trade: India is one of the largest gold importers (800-1,000 tonnes annually), sourcing mainly from Switzerland, UAE, and South Africa, driven by jewelry and investment demand.
- Switzerland's Role: Acts as a refining center, importing raw gold, refining it to high purity standards, and re-exporting to global markets.
Consider the following markets:
- Government Bond Market
- Call Money Market
- Treasury Bill Market
- Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
Capital markets are financial markets where long-term securities (typically with maturity greater than one year) are traded, such as stocks and bonds. Money markets deal with short-term instruments (typically less than one year maturity) such as treasury bills, call money, commercial paper, etc.
✅ Government Bond Market – Correct: Government bonds are long-term debt securities (maturity ranging from 5 to 40 years) issued by governments to finance their activities, and are traded in capital markets.
❌ Call Money Market – Incorrect: The call money market is an ultra-short-term market where funds are borrowed and lent for 1 day to 14 days (typically overnight), making it part of the money market, not the capital market.
❌ Treasury Bill Market – Incorrect: Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the government with maturities of 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days, and are traded in the money market.
✅ Stock Market – Correct: The stock market involves trading of equity shares and ownership interests in companies, which are long-term instruments, making it a core component of capital markets.
📝 Short Notes: Capital Markets vs Money Markets
| Aspect | Capital Market | Money Market |
|---|---|---|
| Time Period | Long-term (> 1 year) | Short-term (< 1 year) |
| Purpose | Long-term financing and investment | Short-term liquidity management |
| Instruments | Stocks, Government Bonds, Corporate Bonds, Debentures | Treasury Bills, Call Money, Commercial Paper, Certificate of Deposit, Repos |
| Risk | Higher risk and higher return | Lower risk and lower return |
| Participants | Retail investors, institutional investors, companies | Banks, financial institutions, RBI, corporate treasuries |
| Regulation | SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) | RBI (Reserve Bank of India) |
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
- It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) enable direct cross-border transactions between central banks without requiring the US dollar as an intermediary or the SWIFT messaging system. Additionally, CBDCs can be programmed with smart contracts to impose conditions such as expiration dates or restrictions on usage, making them 'programmable money.'
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: CBDCs allow peer-to-peer cross-border payments through bilateral arrangements or common platforms between central banks, bypassing the need for US dollar or SWIFT system.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: CBDCs can be programmed with conditions like time-bound spending or purpose-specific use (e.g., subsidies), making them programmable digital currency.
📝 Short Notes: Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs)
- Definition: CBDCs are digital forms of fiat currency issued and regulated by a country's central bank, representing legal tender in digital format.
- Types: Retail CBDCs (for public use) and Wholesale CBDCs (for financial institutions and interbank settlements).
- Programmability: CBDCs can incorporate smart contracts enabling conditional payments, time-bound spending, and purpose-specific usage restrictions.
- Cross-border Transactions: Enable direct central bank-to-central bank settlements, reducing dependency on correspondent banking, SWIFT, and US dollar as reserve currency.
- India's Digital Rupee (e₹): RBI launched pilot projects for both wholesale (e₹-W) and retail (e₹-R) CBDCs in 2022-23.
- Advantages: Reduced transaction costs, financial inclusion, transparency, real-time settlement, and enhanced monetary policy transmission.
- Challenges: Privacy concerns, cybersecurity risks, impact on commercial banks' deposit base, and technological infrastructure requirements.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
In the post-pandemic period, central banks worldwide implemented interest rate hikes to combat rising inflation caused by supply chain disruptions and increased demand. This action was based on the fundamental central banking principle that monetary policy tools, particularly interest rate adjustments, can effectively control inflation by reducing liquidity and dampening demand. Statement-II provides the theoretical foundation and rationale for the practical action described in Statement-I.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: Post-pandemic, many central banks including the US Federal Reserve, RBI, ECB, and Bank of England raised interest rates to combat inflation that peaked globally in 2022-23.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: Central banks operate on the principle that monetary policy, especially interest rate manipulation, can influence aggregate demand and thereby control consumer price inflation.
📝 Short Notes: Monetary Policy and Interest Rates
- Interest Rate Hikes: Central banks increase policy rates (like repo rate in India) to make borrowing expensive, reduce money supply, and curb inflation.
- Monetary Policy Transmission: Rate changes affect commercial lending rates, consumer spending, investment decisions, and ultimately aggregate demand and prices.
- Post-Pandemic Inflation: Supply chain bottlenecks, pent-up demand, fiscal stimulus, and commodity price shocks led to global inflation surge in 2021-23.
- Global Response: US Fed raised rates from near-zero to 5.25-5.50%, ECB from negative to 4%, RBI from 4% to 6.50% during 2022-23.
- Inflation Targeting: Most modern central banks follow inflation targeting framework with mandate to maintain price stability within defined bands.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
This question tests knowledge about the taxation and legal framework governing Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) in India. Statement-I contains outdated information about tax exemptions, while Statement-II correctly identifies the legal status of InvITs under SARFAESI Act.
❌ Statement-I – Incorrect: The Union Budget 2023 eliminated the tax exemption on interest income from InvITs. Currently, all income distributed by InvITs (interest, dividends, and rental income) is taxable in the hands of unitholders as per their applicable income tax slab rates.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act), which enables them to access diverse financing options and enforce security interests in case of loan defaults.
📝 Short Notes: Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
- Definition: InvITs are investment vehicles that pool funds from investors to invest in income-generating infrastructure assets like roads, power transmission lines, and pipelines.
- Regulation: Regulated by SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014; mandatory listing on stock exchanges for public InvITs.
- Structure: Consists of Sponsor (minimum 15% holding for 3 years), Trustee, Investment Manager, and Project Manager.
- Taxation (Post-Budget 2023): All distributions (interest, dividend, rental income) are taxable in hands of unitholders; no tax exemption on interest income anymore.
- Minimum Investment: ₹10-15 lakh for retail investors in public InvITs, making them suitable for institutional and HNI investors.
- SARFAESI Act Status: Recognized as borrowers under SARFAESI Act, 2002, providing legal framework for debt recovery and enforcement of security interests.
- Revenue Model: Generate income through tolls, lease rentals, and usage charges from infrastructure assets; distribute at least 90% of net cash flows to unitholders.
Consider the investments in the following assets:
- Brand recognition
- Inventory
- Intellectual property
- Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Only three
Out of the four listed assets, three are considered intangible investments: Brand recognition, Intellectual property, and Mailing list of clients. These represent non-physical assets that derive value from legal rights, reputation, and customer relationships.
✅ Brand recognition – Intangible: This is a non-physical asset representing the value associated with a brand's reputation, customer loyalty, and market recognition.
✅ Intellectual property – Intangible: This includes patents, copyrights, trademarks, and trade secrets—legally protected non-physical assets that provide competitive advantage.
✅ Mailing list of clients – Intangible: This is a customer relationship asset with economic value, as it enables direct marketing and business communication without physical form.
❌ Inventory – Tangible: Inventory consists of physical goods and raw materials held for sale or production, making it a tangible asset with measurable physical presence.
📝 Short Notes: Tangible vs. Intangible Assets
- Tangible Assets: Physical assets with material form that can be touched and seen (e.g., land, buildings, machinery, inventory, vehicles).
- Intangible Assets: Non-physical assets that derive value from legal rights, intellectual content, or relationships (e.g., patents, trademarks, goodwill, brand equity, customer lists).
- Valuation Difference: Tangible assets are easier to value based on physical attributes, while intangible assets require assessment of future economic benefits.
- Depreciation vs. Amortization: Tangible assets depreciate over time; intangible assets are amortized (except goodwill, which is tested for impairment).
- Economic Importance: In modern knowledge-based economies, intangible assets often constitute a larger share of company value than tangible assets.
Consider the following statements with reference to India:
- According to the 'Micro Small and Medium enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
- All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the Priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 Only
This question tests the understanding of MSME classification criteria and Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms. Statement 1 incorrectly states outdated investment thresholds for medium enterprises, while Statement 2 correctly identifies that all MSME loans qualify under priority sector lending as per RBI guidelines.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The investment range of ₹15-25 crore for medium enterprises does not match any official MSME classification. Under the 2020 notification, medium enterprises were defined as units with investment up to ₹50 crore and turnover up to ₹250 crore. The 2025 revision further raised these limits to ₹125 crore investment and ₹500 crore turnover.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: As per RBI's Master Direction on Priority Sector Lending, all bank credit to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualifies for priority sector classification, helping banks meet their PSL targets.
📝 Short Notes: MSME Classification & Priority Sector Lending
| Classification | MSMED Act 2006 (Original) | 2020 Notification | 2025 Revision |
|---|---|---|---|
| Micro Enterprise | Investment up to ₹25 lakh (Manufacturing) / ₹10 lakh (Services) | Investment up to ₹1 crore & Turnover up to ₹5 crore | Investment up to ₹1 crore & Turnover up to ₹5 crore |
| Small Enterprise | Investment ₹25 lakh - ₹5 crore (Manufacturing) / ₹10 lakh - ₹2 crore (Services) | Investment up to ₹10 crore & Turnover up to ₹50 crore | Investment up to ₹10 crore & Turnover up to ₹50 crore |
| Medium Enterprise | Investment ₹5 crore - ₹10 crore (Manufacturing) / ₹2 crore - ₹5 crore (Services) | Investment up to ₹50 crore & Turnover up to ₹250 crore | Investment up to ₹125 crore & Turnover up to ₹500 crore |
- Composite Criterion: Since 2020, both investment in plant & machinery/equipment AND annual turnover are considered for classification.
- Udyam Registration: Online registration portal introduced in 2020 for MSMEs based on self-declaration.
- Priority Sector Lending: RBI mandates that 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) for domestic banks and 32% for foreign banks must go to priority sectors.
- MSME Sub-targets: 7.5% of ANBC must be lent to Micro enterprises; all MSME loans count toward overall PSL achievement.
- Benefits: MSMEs receive collateral-free loans up to ₹10 lakh, lower interest rates, priority in government procurement, and protection against delayed payments.
Consider the following statements:
- The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
- Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — All three
All three statements about niger (Guizotia abyssinica) are correct. The Government of India provides MSP for niger seeds as it is one of the 14 Kharif crops under the MSP scheme. Niger is indeed cultivated as a Kharif crop, primarily in hilly and tribal areas with poor soils. Niger seed oil is traditionally used for cooking by tribal communities in states like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Niger seed is one of the 14 Kharif crops for which the Government of India announces Minimum Support Price (MSP) through the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Niger is primarily cultivated as a Kharif (monsoon season) crop in India, especially in hilly and tribal regions with poor soil conditions.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Niger seed oil is traditionally used for cooking by tribal communities in various states, and also has other uses like lighting, lubrication, and in soap making.
📝 Short Notes: Niger Crop & MSP
- Niger (Guizotia abyssinica): A minor oilseed crop belonging to the Asteraceae family, also known as ramtil or black sesame in some regions.
- Cultivation Season: Primarily grown as a Kharif crop (sown in June-July, harvested in October-November).
- Growing Regions: Mainly cultivated in Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Jharkhand.
- Soil Requirements: Can grow in poor, marginal soils; suitable for hilly and tribal areas where other crops may not thrive.
- MSP Coverage: Part of 22 mandated crops (14 Kharif + 6 Rabi + 2 other commercial crops) for which Government announces MSP.
- Uses: Oil extraction for cooking (especially by tribal communities), lighting, soap making, and industrial purposes; oil cake used as cattle feed and manure.
Consider the following:
- Demographic performance
- Forest and ecology
- Governance reforms
- Stable government
- Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only three
The Fifteenth Finance Commission used six criteria for horizontal tax devolution: Income Distance (45%), Population (15%), Area (15%), Forest and Ecology (10%), Demographic Performance (12.5%), and Tax and Fiscal Efforts (2.5%). Apart from the three mentioned criteria (population, area, and income distance), only three from the given list were used: Demographic Performance, Forest and Ecology, and Tax and Fiscal Efforts. Governance reforms and stable government were not used as criteria for horizontal tax devolution.
📝 Short Notes: Fifteenth Finance Commission - Horizontal Devolution Criteria
| Criterion | Weight (%) | Rationale |
|---|---|---|
| Income Distance | 45% | Distance of state's per capita income from the highest income state |
| Population | 15% | Based on 2011 Census data |
| Area | 15% | Higher cost of service delivery in larger areas |
| Forest and Ecology | 10% | Share of dense forest cover; environmental conservation incentive |
| Demographic Performance | 12.5% | Rewards states for controlling population growth (1971 baseline) |
| Tax and Fiscal Efforts | 2.5% | Incentive for higher tax collection efficiency |
- Period: 2021-2026 (Award Period)
- Key Change: Demographic Performance replaced 'Demographic Change' used by 14th FC
- Not Included: Governance reforms, stable government, or political stability
UPSC Prelims 2023 - Indian Economy Chapter-wise Distribution
Money, Banking & Financial System
4 Qs (26.7%)Agriculture
3 Qs (20%)Financial Markets and Institutions
3 Qs (20%)Government Schemes & Social Sector
1 Qs (6.7%)Public Finance & Fiscal Policy
1 Qs (6.7%)Industry
1 Qs (6.7%)National Income & Economic Development
1 Qs (6.7%)External Sector
1 Qs (6.7%)UPSC Prelims 2023 - Indian Economy Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Economy questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2023?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Economy in UPSC Prelims 2023?
- Money, Banking & Financial System: 4 questions (26.7%)
- Agriculture: 3 questions (20%)
- Financial Markets and Institutions: 3 questions (20%)
- Government Schemes & Social Sector: 1 questions (6.7%)
- Public Finance & Fiscal Policy: 1 questions (6.7%)
- Industry: 1 questions (6.7%)
- National Income & Economic Development: 1 questions (6.7%)
- External Sector: 1 questions (6.7%)