UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2019 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
This statement is incorrect because creating fully functional chromosomes by simply joining DNA segments from different species is not currently feasible. Chromosomes are highly complex structures requiring species-specific regulatory elements, centromeres, telomeres, and structural proteins that cannot be arbitrarily combined from different organisms to create functional units.
✅ Statement 1 – Incorrect: While synthetic chromosomes and chimeric DNA constructs exist, functional chromosomes cannot be simply created by joining segments from different species due to complex species-specific regulatory requirements.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Synthetic biology enables the chemical synthesis of artificial functional DNA sequences in laboratories, including synthetic genes and even entire viral genomes.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a standard technique that amplifies DNA segments outside living cells in vitro.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Cell culture and tissue culture techniques routinely enable plant and animal cells to divide and grow in laboratory petri dishes using nutrient media.
📝 Short Notes: DNA Technology & Genetic Engineering
- Synthetic DNA: Artificial DNA sequences can be chemically synthesized in laboratories for various applications including gene therapy and research.
- PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): A revolutionary technique developed by Kary Mullis that amplifies specific DNA segments millions of times outside living cells.
- Cell Culture: Technique of growing cells in controlled artificial conditions outside their natural environment, fundamental to biotechnology and medical research.
- Chromosomes: Complex structures consisting of DNA wrapped around histone proteins, containing centromeres, telomeres, and species-specific regulatory elements.
- Chimeric DNA: DNA constructs containing sequences from different sources, commonly used in genetic engineering, but different from functional chromosomes.
- Synthetic Biology: The field has achieved milestones like creating synthetic bacterial genomes (Mycoplasma mycoides, 2010) but functional multi-species chromosomes remain beyond current capability.
Consider the following pairs:
| Movement/Organization | Leader |
|---|---|
| 1. All India Anti-Untouchability League | Mahatma Gandhi |
| 2. All India Kisan Sabha | Swami Sahajanand Saraswati |
| 3. Self-Respect Movement | E.V. Ramaswami Naicker |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
All three pairs are correctly matched, linking important social and agrarian movements of colonial India with their respective leaders.
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: The All India Anti-Untouchability League was founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 and later renamed as Harijan Sewak Sangh to work for the upliftment of Dalits.
✅ Pair 2 – Correct: The All India Kisan Sabha was founded by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati at the Lucknow session in 1936 to organize peasants and address agrarian issues.
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: The Self-Respect Movement was founded by E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) in 1925 in Tamil Nadu as an anti-caste, anti-Brahmanical social reform movement.
📝 Short Notes: Social and Agrarian Movements in Colonial India
| Movement/Organization | Year | Leader | Key Focus |
|---|---|---|---|
| All India Anti-Untouchability League (Harijan Sewak Sangh) | 1932 | Mahatma Gandhi | Eradication of untouchability and upliftment of Dalits |
| All India Kisan Sabha | 1936 | Swami Sahajanand Saraswati | Organization of peasants, agrarian reforms, land rights |
| Self-Respect Movement | 1925 | E.V. Ramaswami Naicker (Periyar) | Anti-caste, anti-Brahminism, rationalism, social equality |
| All India Depressed Classes Association | 1920s | Dr. B.R. Ambedkar | Rights and representation of depressed classes |
| Satya Shodhak Samaj | 1873 | Jyotirao Phule | Social equality, education for lower castes |
Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:
- It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
- The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 and 2 only
The Charter Act of 1813 was a landmark legislation that ended the East India Company's trade monopoly in India (except for tea and China trade) and explicitly asserted British Crown sovereignty over Indian territories. However, direct parliamentary control over Indian revenues was not established by this Act.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Act abolished the Company's trade monopoly in India, opening trade to all British merchants, but retained the monopoly over tea and trade with China for another 20 years.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Act explicitly asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company, marking a constitutional milestone in British-India relations.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Act required separate accounts for commercial and territorial revenues, but direct parliamentary control over Indian revenues was only established through the Government of India Act 1858 after the Company's rule ended.
📝 Short Notes: Charter Acts and Company Rule
| Act/Year | Key Provisions |
|---|---|
| Regulating Act 1773 | Created post of Governor-General; Established Supreme Court in Calcutta; Company's affairs subjected to British Government scrutiny |
| Pitt's India Act 1784 | Dual system of control: Court of Directors (commercial) and Board of Control (political); Distinguished commercial and political functions |
| Charter Act 1813 | Ended trade monopoly (except tea & China trade); Asserted Crown sovereignty; Allocated funds for education; Christian missionaries allowed |
| Charter Act 1833 | Ended all commercial activities of Company; Governor-General of Bengal became Governor-General of India; Centralized administration |
| Charter Act 1853 | Separated legislative and executive functions; Introduced open competition for civil services; Extended British Parliament control |
| Government of India Act 1858 | Transferred power from Company to Crown; Created Secretary of State for India; Ended Company rule completely |
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With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
| Person | Position Held |
|---|---|
| 1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru | President, All India Liberal Federation |
| 2. K.C. Neogy | Member of the Constituent Assembly |
| 3. P.C. Joshi | General Secretary, Communist Party of India |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
All three pairs are correctly matched. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was a prominent liberal leader who served as President of the All India Liberal Federation. K.C. Neogy was indeed a member of the Constituent Assembly representing West Bengal. P.C. Joshi was the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India from 1935 to 1947.
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru was President of the All India Liberal Federation and a distinguished liberal leader.
✅ Pair 2 – Correct: K.C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly from West Bengal.
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: P.C. Joshi served as the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India (1935-1947).
📝 Short Notes: Key Personalities of Indian National Movement
| Person | Key Role/Position | Significance |
|---|---|---|
| Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru (1875-1949) | President, All India Liberal Federation | Eminent lawyer, liberal leader, member of various round table conferences, advocate of moderate constitutional reform |
| K.C. Neogy (1897-1973) | Member, Constituent Assembly (West Bengal) | Minister for Relief and Rehabilitation in Nehru Cabinet, worked on refugee rehabilitation post-partition |
| P.C. Joshi (1907-1980) | General Secretary, CPI (1935-1947) | First General Secretary of CPI, led the party during crucial pre-independence years, replaced by B.T. Ranadive in 1947 |
- All India Liberal Federation: Formed in 1918 by moderate leaders who believed in constitutional methods and cooperation with British reforms.
- Constituent Assembly: Established in 1946 to frame India's Constitution; had 299 members representing different provinces and princely states.
- Communist Party of India: Founded in 1925, played significant role in trade union movements and peasant struggles during the freedom movement.
With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
- It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
- The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
The Swadeshi Movement (1905-1911) aimed at promoting indigenous industries and self-reliance by boycotting foreign goods. Both statements correctly capture key aspects of this movement.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Swadeshi Movement led to the revival of indigenous artisan crafts and industries, including handloom weaving, silk industry, and cottage industries, with new cotton mills and textile units being established.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The National Council of Education was founded in Bengal in 1906 as part of the Swadeshi Movement to provide nationalist education and promote science, technology, and industrial education independent of British control.
📝 Short Notes: Swadeshi Movement (1905-1911)
- Background: Launched in response to the Partition of Bengal (1905) by Lord Curzon, aimed at dividing Bengal along communal lines.
- Economic Aspects: Boycott of British goods, promotion of indigenous industries, revival of handloom and cottage industries, establishment of Swadeshi stores and banks.
- Educational Initiatives: National Council of Education (1906), Bengal National College established with Aurobindo as Principal, promotion of technical and industrial education.
- Cultural Revival: Encouragement of Indian art, literature, music; use of indigenous products in daily life; celebration of national festivals.
- Key Leaders: Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra Pal (Lal-Bal-Pal), Aurobindo Ghosh, Rabindranath Tagore (initially).
- Impact: Strengthened nationalist sentiment, laid foundation for mass politics, promoted self-reliance and economic nationalism.
- Limitations: Limited mass appeal beyond Bengal, did not significantly involve peasants and workers, gradually declined after 1908.
With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
- Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
- In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
- Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 3 only
This question tests knowledge of Mahatma Gandhi's role in various colonial-era issues and British responses to Indian nationalist movements. Statement 2 is incorrect as Gandhi actually supported the recruitment resolution at the War Conference, while statements 1 and 3 accurately reflect historical facts.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Mahatma Gandhi actively campaigned against the exploitative system of indentured labour, which was finally abolished in 1920 following his persistent efforts and advocacy for labourers' rights both in South Africa and India.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: At Lord Chelmsford's War Conference in 1918, Gandhi actually supported the British war effort and the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War I, believing that Indian loyalty would earn political concessions and dominion status.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Following the Salt Satyagraha launched by Gandhi on March 12, 1930, and the subsequent mass breaking of salt laws, the British government declared the Indian National Congress illegal and arrested thousands of Congress leaders and activists.
📝 Short Notes: Gandhi's Political Movements and British Responses
| Event/Movement | Year | Key Facts |
|---|---|---|
| Indentured Labour System | Abolished 1920 | Gandhi campaigned against this system since South Africa days; system involved bonded labour sent to colonies under exploitative contracts |
| War Conference 1918 | April 1918 | Gandhi supported British war efforts; believed cooperation would lead to Home Rule; faced criticism from nationalists like Tilak |
| Salt Satyagraha | March-April 1930 | Dandi March (March 12-April 6); Gandhi broke salt law at Dandi on April 6; triggered mass civil disobedience nationwide |
| Congress Declared Illegal | 1930-31 | Following Salt Satyagraha; led to arrest of over 60,000 people including Gandhi and Nehru; Congress banned until Gandhi-Irwin Pact 1931 |
Which one of the following groups of plants were domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber were all native to the Americas (the 'New World') and were introduced to Europe, Asia, and Africa (the 'Old World') after 1492 following the Columbian Exchange. Cotton, coffee, sugarcane, and wheat were already present in the Old World before Columbus's voyages, making options 2, 3, and 4 incorrect.
📝 Short Notes: New World vs Old World Crops
| Category | Examples |
|---|---|
| New World Crops (Americas) | Tobacco, cocoa, rubber, potato, tomato, maize (corn), cassava, beans, pumpkin, avocado, peanut, vanilla, chili pepper, pineapple, sunflower |
| Old World Crops (Europe, Asia, Africa) | Wheat, rice, barley, coffee, sugarcane, cotton, tea, banana, grapes, onion, garlic, citrus fruits, chickpeas, lentils |
| Columbian Exchange | The widespread transfer of plants, animals, culture, human populations, technology, diseases, and ideas between the Americas and the Old World following Columbus's 1492 voyage |
- Tobacco: Native to tropical Americas, became major cash crop globally after introduction to Europe in 16th century
- Cocoa: Originated in Amazon basin and Mesoamerica; chocolate became popular in Europe after Spanish conquest
- Rubber: Extracted from rubber trees native to Amazon rainforest; became economically vital during Industrial Revolution
- Cotton: Cultivated independently in both Old World (India, Egypt) and New World; not exclusive to Americas
- Coffee: Native to Ethiopia and Arabia; spread to Americas later, not vice versa
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar
This statement is incorrect because the title 'Tansen' was given to him by Raja Vikramjit (also known as Vikramaditya) of Gwalior, not by Emperor Akbar. His original name was Ramtanu Pandey. Before joining Akbar's court, Tansen served as a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandhavgarh (Rewa).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Tansen composed numerous Dhrupads dedicated to Hindu gods and goddesses, demonstrating his devotion and musical mastery.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: As a court musician, Tansen composed songs in praise of his patrons, including Emperor Akbar, which was a common practice for court musicians.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Tansen is credited with creating and popularizing several Ragas in Hindustani classical music, including Raga Darbari Kanada, Miyan ki Malhar, and Miyan ki Todi.
📝 Short Notes: Mian Tansen
- Original Name: Ramtanu Pandey (later given the title 'Tansen' by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior)
- Early Career: Court musician of Raja Ramachandra of Bandhavgarh (Rewa) before joining Akbar's court
- Navratnas: One of the nine jewels (Navratnas) in Emperor Akbar's court
- Musical Contributions: Mastered and popularized the Dhrupad style; credited with creating several Ragas including Darbari Kanada, Miyan ki Malhar, Miyan ki Todi, and Miyan ki Sarang
- Guru: Learned music from Swami Haridas of the Gwalior school
- Religious Affiliation: Born a Hindu Brahmin, later converted to Islam (though this is debated by scholars)
- Legacy: His tomb is located in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, and an annual music festival (Tansen Samaroh) is held there in his honor
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
- Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
- Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements present incorrect characterizations of Jagirdars and Zamindars in Mughal India. Jagirdars were Mansabdars who received land assignments (Jagirs) as salary for military and administrative services—not judicial/police duties—and these assignments were typically non-hereditary. Zamindars, while primarily revenue collectors, also had military obligations and their rights were generally hereditary, contrary to what the statements claim.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Jagirdars held land assignments in lieu of military/administrative services (not judicial/police duties), and Zamindars had obligations beyond revenue collection, including providing military service and maintaining law and order.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Jagir assignments were generally non-hereditary and Jagirdars were frequently transferred to prevent local entrenchment, whereas Zamindari rights were typically hereditary based on traditional social standing.
📝 Short Notes: Jagirdari and Zamindari Systems in Mughal India
| Feature | Jagirdar | Zamindar |
|---|---|---|
| Definition | Mansabdars assigned land (Jagir) in lieu of cash salary | Hereditary landed intermediaries with revenue collection rights |
| Nature of Assignment | Non-hereditary, transferable | Hereditary, based on traditional rights |
| Primary Function | Military and administrative service to the state | Revenue collection and local administration |
| Obligations | Maintain troops, provide military service | Collect revenue, provide military contingents (sawars), maintain law and order |
| Transfer Policy | Frequently transferred to prevent local power consolidation | Remained in their ancestral territories |
| Relationship with Land | No ownership rights, only revenue collection rights | Intermediate proprietorship with customary rights |
Consider the following statements:
- In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
- The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
- The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
This question tests knowledge of administrative institutions during the Delhi Sultanate period. Only the first statement regarding the Amil as revenue collector is historically accurate, while the claims about the Iqta system's indigenous origin and the Mir Bakshi's establishment during Khalji period are incorrect.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The 'Amil' was the officer responsible for revenue collection in the territorial divisions (iqtas or provinces) of the Delhi Sultanate.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Iqta system was not an indigenous institution but was borrowed from the Persian/Arab administrative model and introduced in India by the Delhi Sultans.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The office of 'Mir Bakshi' (head of military department) came into existence during the Mughal period under Akbar, not during the Khalji Sultanate.
📝 Short Notes: Revenue and Administrative Systems of Delhi Sultanate
| Office/System | Function | Period/Origin |
|---|---|---|
| Amil | Revenue collector at provincial/iqta level | Delhi Sultanate |
| Iqta System | Land assignment system where military commanders received revenue rights in lieu of salary | Persian/Arab origin, introduced by early Sultans |
| Diwan-i-Wizarat | Central finance department | Delhi Sultanate |
| Mir Bakshi | Head of military department, maintained army records | Mughal period (Akbar's reign) |
| Barids | Intelligence officers/news reporters | Delhi Sultanate (especially Alauddin Khalji) |
- Khalji Dynasty Contributions: Alauddin Khalji strengthened revenue administration with strict price control (market regulation), military reforms, and efficient intelligence network.
- Revenue Assessment: Land revenue was the main source of income; assessment methods varied under different Sultans.
- Iqtadars/Muqtis: Holders of iqtas who collected revenue and maintained troops from their assignments.
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — The European Union
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) was adopted by the European Union in April 2016 and implemented from 25th May 2018. It is a comprehensive legal framework designed to protect the personal data and privacy rights of EU citizens, setting stringent standards for data collection, processing, and storage that apply to any organization handling EU residents' data, regardless of geographic location.
📝 Short Notes: General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
- Adoption and Implementation: Adopted by the EU in April 2016; came into effect on 25th May 2018.
- Scope: Applies to all organizations processing personal data of EU/EEA residents, regardless of the organization's location.
- Key Principles: Lawfulness, fairness, transparency, purpose limitation, data minimization, accuracy, storage limitation, integrity, and confidentiality.
- Individual Rights: Right to access, rectification, erasure (right to be forgotten), restriction of processing, data portability, and objection.
- Penalties: Organizations can face fines up to €20 million or 4% of annual global turnover, whichever is higher, for serious violations.
- Data Protection Officers: Certain organizations must appoint a DPO to oversee GDPR compliance.
- Impact on India: Indian companies handling EU citizens' data must comply with GDPR; influenced India's Personal Data Protection Bill discussions.
Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Russia
India signed the 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with Russia to strengthen bilateral cooperation in civil nuclear energy. Russia has been a key strategic partner in India's nuclear energy sector, particularly through Rosatom's involvement in constructing the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KNPP) in Tamil Nadu. This agreement aims to enhance collaboration in nuclear fuel cycle management, construction of nuclear power projects, and advanced research in nuclear science and technology.
📝 Short Notes: India-Russia Nuclear Cooperation
- Strategic Partnership: India and Russia share a long-standing strategic partnership in civil nuclear cooperation since the Soviet era.
- Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KNPP): Located in Tamil Nadu, built with Russian assistance through Rosatom; Units 1 and 2 are operational, and additional units are under construction.
- Nuclear Fuel Supply: Russia provides assured nuclear fuel supply to India's reactors, including those under IAEA safeguards.
- Technology Transfer: Cooperation includes technology transfer for fast breeder reactors and nuclear fuel cycle management.
- Other Nuclear Partners: India has civil nuclear agreements with the USA (123 Agreement, 2008), France, Japan, Canada, and the UK, but Russia remains the most active operational partner.
Consider the following statements:
- The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
- The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
- A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
- The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 2 and 4 only
This question tests knowledge of international conventions related to corruption and organized crime. Only statements 2 and 4 are correct, while statements 1 and 3 incorrectly attribute specific protocols and chapters to the wrong conventions.
✅ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air supplements the UNTOC (United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime), not the UNCAC.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The UNCAC, adopted in 2003 and entered into force in 2005, is indeed the first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Asset recovery (Chapter V) is a specific highlight of the UNCAC, not the UNTOC.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: The UNODC is mandated by member states to assist in implementing both UNCAC and UNTOC, along with the three UN Drug Conventions.
📝 Short Notes: UNCAC and UNTOC
| Feature | UNCAC | UNTOC |
|---|---|---|
| Full Name | UN Convention against Corruption | UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime |
| Adopted | 2003 (force: 2005) | 2000 (force: 2003) |
| Key Focus | Anti-corruption measures, asset recovery | Combating transnational organized crime |
| Special Feature | First legally binding global anti-corruption instrument; Chapter V on Asset Recovery | Three supplementary protocols (Trafficking in Persons, Smuggling of Migrants, Firearms) |
| Implementation Support | UNODC | UNODC |
- Three UNTOC Protocols: (1) Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children; (2) Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air; (3) Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing of and Trafficking in Firearms
- Asset Recovery: UNCAC's Chapter V provides mechanisms for countries to recover assets stolen through corruption, making it the first international instrument with a dedicated chapter on this issue
- UNODC Role: Assists member states in implementing UNCAC, UNTOC, and the three UN Drug Conventions (1961, 1971, 1988)
With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements :
- AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
- India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
- AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank established in 2016 with headquarters in Beijing. Among the three statements, only the first statement about AIIB having more than 80 member nations is correct.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: AIIB has more than 80 member nations (as of 2024, it has 109 approved members from across the globe).
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: India is the second-largest shareholder in AIIB with approximately 7.5% voting share, while China is the largest shareholder with around 26.6% voting share.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: AIIB has members from outside Asia, including numerous European countries (like UK, Germany, France), as well as members from South America, Africa, and Oceania.
📝 Short Notes: Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Establishment | January 2016 |
| Headquarters | Beijing, China |
| Total Members | 109 approved members (as of 2024) |
| Largest Shareholder | China (~26.6% voting share) |
| Second Largest Shareholder | India (~7.5% voting share) |
| Purpose | Infrastructure development and regional connectivity in Asia-Pacific |
| Global Reach | Members from Asia, Europe, Africa, South America, and Oceania |
| Key Focus Areas | Sustainable infrastructure, green energy, transportation, urban development |
Consider the following statements :
- The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect because the 44th Amendment (1978) actually restored judicial review of elections of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister, and Speaker, which had been removed by the 39th Amendment. Statement 2 is correct as the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014, which established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), holding that it violated the independence of the judiciary—a basic feature of the Constitution.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The 44th Amendment restored judicial review of the Prime Minister's election, not placed it beyond review (the 39th Amendment had removed such review).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The 99th Amendment (2014) establishing NJAC was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 for violating judicial independence.
📝 Short Notes: Constitutional Amendments and Judicial Review
| Amendment | Year | Key Provision | Outcome |
|---|---|---|---|
| 39th Amendment | 1975 | Placed elections of President, Vice President, PM, and Speaker beyond judicial review | Enacted during Emergency; removed judicial oversight |
| 44th Amendment | 1978 | Restored judicial review for these elections | Reversed the 39th Amendment provisions |
| 99th Amendment | 2014 | Established National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) to replace Collegium system | Struck down by SC in 2015 (violated judicial independence) |
- Basic Structure Doctrine: Established in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), it holds that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be amended by Parliament, including judicial independence.
- Collegium System: A system of appointing judges evolved through judicial pronouncements (Second and Third Judges Cases), where senior SC judges recommend appointments.
- NJAC Composition: Included CJI, two senior SC judges, Union Law Minister, and two eminent persons—SC held this compromised judicial primacy in appointments.
- Judicial Independence: Core element ensuring judiciary remains free from executive and legislative interference, essential for constitutional democracy.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Fifth Schedule
The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas with significant tribal populations. Under this Schedule, the Governor has the power to declare any law related to the transfer of tribal land as null and void if it violates the interests of tribal communities, thus preventing unauthorized transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining or other purposes.
📝 Short Notes: Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
- Purpose: Provides for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
- Scheduled Areas: Declared by the President, these are areas with predominantly tribal population requiring special administrative arrangements.
- Tribes Advisory Council (TAC): Mandatory in states having Scheduled Areas, consisting of up to 20 members (3/4th should be tribal MLAs) to advise on tribal welfare matters.
- Governor's Special Powers: Can direct that any particular Act of Parliament or State Legislature shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or apply with specified modifications; can make regulations for peace and good government of Scheduled Areas (subject to President's approval).
- Land Protection: Governors can prohibit or regulate the transfer of land from tribals to non-tribals, and declare such transfers null and void to protect tribal land rights.
- States Covered: Applies to 10 states including Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Rajasthan.
- Key Distinction: Fifth Schedule for mainland tribal areas; Sixth Schedule for tribal areas in Northeast (except Nagaland).
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Article 21
Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to include the right to marry a person of one's choice as part of personal liberty and autonomy. Landmark judgments like Shafin Jahan vs. Asokan K.M. (Hadiya case, 2018) and Lata Singh vs. State of U.P. (2006) have affirmed that the choice of a life partner is an integral part of personal liberty under Article 21.
📝 Short Notes: Right to Marry and Article 21
- Article 21: Guarantees right to life and personal liberty; interpreted expansively to include various unenumerated rights including right to marry, right to privacy, right to livelihood, etc.
- Shafin Jahan vs. Asokan K.M. (Hadiya case, 2018): Supreme Court held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is integral to Article 21; an adult has the freedom to make personal choices regarding marriage without interference from state or family.
- Lata Singh vs. State of U.P. (2006): SC upheld inter-caste marriages and stated that choosing a life partner is a fundamental right; no one can interfere with such choices.
- Shakti Vahini vs. Union of India (2018): Affirmed that liberty of choice in marriage is a fundamental right; condemned honor killings and khap panchayat interventions.
- Personal Liberty: Includes autonomy in intimate personal decisions, dignity, and freedom to choose one's life partner irrespective of caste, religion, or social approval.
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
Article 142 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court plenary power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it. This extraordinary power is not subject to limitations or prohibitions contained in ordinary laws (statutes) enacted by Parliament. The Supreme Court has consistently held that while Article 142 cannot override express constitutional provisions, it is not restricted by statutory provisions.
Why other options are incorrect:
❌ Option 1: Article 329 places certain restrictions on court interference in electoral matters, but it does not grant the Election Commission absolute immunity from judicial review, nor does it relate to Article 142's plenary powers.
❌ Option 3: Under Article 74, the President must act on the 'aid and advice' of the Council of Ministers in all matters, including the declaration of Financial Emergency under Article 360; the President cannot act independently without Cabinet counsel.
❌ Option 4: This describes the federal distribution of legislative powers under the Seventh Schedule and provisions like Article 252, which governs inter-governmental legislative relations, not the Supreme Court's judicial powers under Article 142.
📝 Short Notes: Article 142 - Plenary Powers of Supreme Court
- Constitutional Basis: Article 142(1) empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or make any order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it.
- Scope: This is a residuary power that supplements all other powers of the Supreme Court and can be exercised when existing legal provisions are inadequate to do complete justice.
- Not Subject to Statutory Limitations: The power under Article 142 is not constrained by ordinary laws made by Parliament, as confirmed in landmark cases like Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India and Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India.
- Constitutional Limitations Apply: While not bound by statutory laws, Article 142 cannot override express constitutional provisions or fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III.
- Examples of Use: Granting anticipatory bail in non-bailable offences, ordering inter-country adoption, dissolving marriage without the one-year waiting period, and environmental protection measures.
- Article 142(2): Empowers the Supreme Court to investigate and punish any person for contempt of itself.
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Sarkaria Commission 1983
The Sarkaria Commission (1983-88) was established to examine Centre-State relations and made specific recommendations regarding the appointment of Governors. It suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State, should be a detached figure without intense political links, and should not have taken part in active politics in the recent past. This recommendation aimed to ensure the Governor's neutrality and impartiality in State administration.
📝 Short Notes: Recommendations on Governor's Appointment by Various Commissions
| Commission/Committee | Year | Key Recommendations on Governor |
|---|---|---|
| First Administrative Reforms Commission | 1966 | Focused on administrative reforms; did not make specific recommendations on Governor's political background |
| Rajamannar Committee | 1969 | Tamil Nadu committee on Centre-State relations; suggested abolition of Governor's office |
| Sarkaria Commission | 1983-88 | • Eminent person from outside the State • Detached figure without intense political links • Should not have participated in active politics recently • Consultation with Chief Minister before appointment • Five-year tenure security |
| National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) | 2000-02 | • Fixed tenure of five years • Removal only through impeachment-like process • Should be appointed in consultation with State CM and Speaker |
| Punchhi Commission | 2007-10 | • Endorsed Sarkaria Commission recommendations • Suggested that Governor should not be from the State of appointment • Appointment through committee including PM, Speaker, CM, and Leader of Opposition |
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Jawaharlal Nehru
The Ninth Schedule was introduced through the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru. This amendment was enacted to protect land reform and other socio-economic legislation from judicial review on grounds of violating fundamental rights, particularly the right to property under Article 31. Prime Minister Nehru personally introduced this amendment bill in the Lok Sabha to safeguard progressive legislative measures aimed at social and economic transformation.
📝 Short Notes: Ninth Schedule
- Introduction: Added by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 during Nehru's tenure as Prime Minister.
- Purpose: To protect laws placed in it from judicial review on grounds of violation of fundamental rights, especially Article 14, 19, and the erstwhile Article 31.
- Initial Focus: Primarily contained laws related to land reforms and abolition of zamindari system.
- Supreme Court Verdict (I.R. Coelho case, 2007): Laws in the Ninth Schedule can be subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution, particularly after April 24, 1973.
- Current Status: Contains over 280 Acts and Regulations protecting various state and central laws.
- Key Legislation Protected: Land ceiling acts, abolition of intermediaries, reservation laws, and other socio-economic reform measures.
UPSC Prelims 2019 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Indian Economy
23 Qs (23%)Environment & Ecology
19 Qs (19%)Indian Polity
15 Qs (15%)Science & Technology
12 Qs (12%)Medieval History
5 Qs (5%)Indian Geography
5 Qs (5%)Modern History
5 Qs (5%)Ancient History
4 Qs (4%)International Relations
4 Qs (4%)Current Affairs
3 Qs (3%)World Geography
3 Qs (3%)Indian Art & Culture
1 Qs (1%)World History
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2019?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2019?
- Indian Economy: 23 questions (23%)
- Environment & Ecology: 19 questions (19%)
- Indian Polity: 15 questions (15%)
- Science & Technology: 12 questions (12%)
- Medieval History: 5 questions (5%)
- Indian Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- Modern History: 5 questions (5%)
- Ancient History: 4 questions (4%)
- International Relations: 4 questions (4%)
- Current Affairs: 3 questions (3%)
- World Geography: 3 questions (3%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 1 questions (1%)
- World History: 1 questions (1%)