UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 only

The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 introduced limited electoral reforms but did not grant universal voting rights to all women above the age of 21. The Government of India Act of 1935, however, explicitly provided reserved seats for women in both provincial and central legislatures, marking a significant step towards women's political representation.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms did not recommend granting voting rights to all women above 21; voting rights remained restricted based on property, income, and education qualifications.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced reserved seats for women in provincial and central legislatures to ensure their political representation.

📝 Short Notes: Constitutional Reforms (1919-1935)

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi translated a collection of ancient Indian religious lyrics from Sanskrit and other Indian languages into English during his imprisonment in Yerwada Jail in 1930. This work was published in London in 1934 under the title 'Songs from Prison'.

Why other options are incorrect:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak: He is well-known for his work 'Gita Rahasya', which he wrote while imprisoned in Mandalay (1908-1914), and 'The Arctic Home in the Vedas'. He is not associated with 'Songs from Prison'.
Jawaharlal Nehru: His major literary contributions include 'The Discovery of India' and 'Glimpses of World History', both written during his various terms in prison, but not 'Songs from Prison'.
Sarojini Naidu: Known as the 'Nightingale of India', she was a prolific poet whose works include 'The Golden Threshold', 'The Bird of Time', and 'The Broken Wing', but she is not associated with the translation 'Songs from Prison'.

📝 Short Notes: Prison Literature by Freedom Fighters

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 Only

This question tests knowledge about the emergence of various provincial kingdoms in Indian history. Only statement 2 is correct, as the Mysore Kingdom indeed emerged from the Vijayanagara Empire after its fall in 1565.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Nizamat of Arcot (Carnatic) was established by Aurangzeb as a subdivision under the Deccan Subedar. While it was administratively under the Nizam of Hyderabad, it did not emerge out of Hyderabad State; rather, both were Mughal administrative units.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Mysore Kingdom emerged from the Vijayanagara Empire. After the Battle of Talikota (1565), the Wodeyar dynasty, which had been subordinate chiefs under Vijayanagara, established their independent kingdom at Mysore.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed by Rohilla Afghans who migrated to India in the 18th century. Ali Muhammad Khan established this kingdom by taking advantage of the power vacuum following Nadir Shah's invasion (1739), not from territories directly occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

📝 Short Notes: Successor States of Mughal and Vijayanagara Empires

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — 1 only

This question tests the chronological accuracy of three historical events and their associated rulers. Only the first statement correctly matches the event with the ruler's reign, while the other two contain factual errors regarding either the ruler or the timeline.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: In 1221, Genghis Khan reached the Indus pursuing Jalal-ad-Din Mangburni, the Khwarazmian prince, during Iltutmish's reign. Iltutmish wisely refused asylum, avoiding a Mongol invasion of the Delhi Sultanate.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Timur invaded India in 1398 during the reign of Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq (last Tughlaq ruler), not Muhammad bin Tughluq who died in 1351. Timur's grandson Pir Muhammad occupied Multan before Timur crossed the Indus.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Vasco da Gama reached Calicut in 1498 during the reign of Immadi Narasimha Raya of the Saluva Dynasty. Deva Raya II of the Sangama Dynasty ruled from 1422-1446, more than 50 years before the Portuguese arrival.

📝 Short Notes: Medieval Indian Rulers and Key Events

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Paragana- Sarkar- Suba

The administrative divisions in medieval India, particularly during the Mughal period, were organized hierarchically with Pargana being the smallest unit comprising a group of villages, Sarkar as a mid-level division (district) formed by grouping several Parganas, and Suba as the largest provincial division encompassing multiple Sarkars. This ascending order of Pargana → Sarkar → Suba reflects the administrative structure from the grassroots village cluster level to the provincial level.

📝 Short Notes: Mughal Administrative Divisions

• Revenue Administration: At the Pargana level, the key officials were Shiqdar (law and order), Amin (land revenue assessment), and Munsif (records and accounts).
• Provincial Governance: Each Suba was headed by a Subedar/Sipahsalar (governor) who was responsible for military and civil administration.
• Financial Control: The Diwan (finance minister) at the Suba level managed revenue collection and financial matters independently of the Subedar to ensure checks and balances.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2, 3 and 4

According to the Portuguese chronicler Fernão Nuniz, who visited the Vijayanagara Empire during the reign of Krishnadevaraya, women in the royal household were trained and employed in diverse professional roles. His accounts specifically mention their expertise in wrestling, astrology, accounting, and soothsaying, highlighting the progressive attitude towards women's education and professional engagement in the empire.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Women were skilled in wrestling and martial arts, serving as guards and warriors in the royal palace.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Women practiced astrology and were employed as astrologers in the royal court.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Women were trained in accounting and managed financial records in the palace administration.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Women practiced soothsaying (divination) and fortune-telling at the royal court.

📝 Short Notes: Women in Vijayanagara Empire

• Foreign Accounts: Portuguese travelers like Domingo Paes, Fernão Nuniz, and Italian Niccolò de' Conti provided detailed accounts of women's status in Vijayanagara.
• Royal Employment: Women served in various professional capacities in the royal household including guards, wrestlers, accountants, astrologers, musicians, and dancers.
• Literary Patronage: Krishnadevaraya patronized female poets and writers; several women contributed to Telugu and Sanskrit literature during this period.
• Military Roles: Women were trained in martial arts and archery; some served as bodyguards to queens and royal women.
• Economic Independence: Women engaged in trade, owned property, and had inheritance rights, showing their economic agency.
• Social Status: Despite progressive roles in certain areas, practices like Sati and restrictions on widow remarriage also existed in the empire.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 3 Only

This question tests knowledge about international seabed governance and mineral resources. Statement 1 is incorrect because the International Seabed Authority (ISA), not the Global Ocean Commission, grants licenses for seabed exploration. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as India holds ISA licenses for deep-sea mineral exploration and rare earth minerals are indeed present on the international seabed.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The International Seabed Authority (ISA) regulates seabed mining in international waters, not the Global Ocean Commission, which was a 2013-2016 advisory initiative focused on ocean degradation and high seas governance.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: India has received multiple licenses from the International Seabed Authority for seabed mineral exploration in international waters, including areas in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (since 1987, renewed in 2002 and 2017) and for polymetallic sulphides in the Indian Ocean Ridge (2016).

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Rare earth minerals are found in polymetallic nodules and deep-sea sediments on the ocean floor in international waters, though their commercial extraction remains economically challenging.

📝 Short Notes: International Seabed Authority (ISA) and Deep-Sea Mining

• International Seabed Authority (ISA): Autonomous international organization established under UNCLOS (1994) to regulate mineral-related activities in the international seabed area beyond national jurisdiction (the 'Area').
• Headquarters: Kingston, Jamaica; 167 member states and the European Union.
• India's ISA Licenses: Pioneer Investor status (1987) for polymetallic nodules in Central Indian Ocean Basin; renewed licenses in 2002 and 2017; additional license for polymetallic sulphides exploration in Indian Ocean Ridge (2016).
• Deep-Sea Minerals: Include polymetallic nodules (manganese, nickel, cobalt, copper), polymetallic sulphides (copper, zinc, gold, silver), and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts containing rare earth elements.
• Global Ocean Commission: Temporary initiative (2013-2016) led by former heads of state to propose reforms for high seas governance; not a regulatory body.
• India's Deep Ocean Mission: Launched to explore deep-sea resources, develop deep-sea technologies, and enhance understanding of ocean resources including minerals in India's licensed areas.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 Only

This question tests knowledge about International Mother Language Day and the historical language movement in Pakistan. Statement 1 is incorrect because International Mother Language Day was declared by UNESCO, not UNICEF. Statement 2 is correct as the demand for Bangla to be recognized as a national language was indeed raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan, leading to the historic Language Movement.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: International Mother Language Day (21st February) was declared by UNESCO in 1999, not by UNICEF. It commemorates the Bengali Language Movement martyrs of 1952.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The demand that Bangla should be one of the national languages of Pakistan was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan in the late 1940s and early 1950s, leading to the Language Movement of 1952.

📝 Short Notes: International Mother Language Day & Bengali Language Movement

• International Mother Language Day: Observed on 21st February annually, proclaimed by UNESCO in 1999 to promote linguistic and cultural diversity and multilingualism.
• Historical Context: Commemorates the martyrs of the Bengali Language Movement in East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) on 21st February 1952.
• Language Movement Background: After Pakistan's creation in 1947, Urdu was declared the sole national language despite Bangla being spoken by the majority in East Pakistan.
• Constituent Assembly Demand: Bengali legislators demanded recognition of Bangla as a national language alongside Urdu in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.
• 1952 Movement: Students and activists protested on 21st February 1952 in Dhaka; police firing killed several protesters, sparking widespread outrage.
• Outcome: Bangla was eventually recognized as a state language of Pakistan in 1956, and later became the sole official language of Bangladesh after independence in 1971.
• Global Significance: The sacrifice of language martyrs led to worldwide recognition of linguistic rights and cultural identity.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — Legal right available to any person

The Right to Property is currently a constitutional (legal) right available to any person (not just citizens) under Article 300-A. It was a Fundamental Right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 until the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 removed it from Part III and placed it under Part XII as Article 300-A, which states: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."

📝 Short Notes: Right to Property — Constitutional Evolution

• 44th Amendment Act, 1978: Removed Articles 19(1)(f) and 31; inserted Article 300-A
• Article 300-A: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law"
• Significance: Right to property is still protected but not a Fundamental Right; cannot be enforced through Article 32
• Compensation: Government decides quantum; not judicially reviewable on amount
• Applicability: Extends to all persons including foreigners and legal entities

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Article 21

The right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. In the landmark judgment K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India (2017), a 9-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously declared that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21. This right is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution but has been read into Article 21 through judicial interpretation.

📝 Short Notes: Right to Privacy

• Constitutional Basis: Right to privacy is not explicitly mentioned but is protected under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).
• K.S. Puttaswamy Case (2017): 9-judge bench unanimously held privacy as a fundamental right intrinsic to Article 21 and part of freedoms under Part III.
• Components: Includes informational privacy, bodily privacy, decisional privacy, and privacy of communication.
• Earlier Judgments: Privacy was recognized in Kharak Singh case (1964) and M.P. Sharma case (1954) denied it as a fundamental right; R. Rajagopal case (1994) recognized it partially.
• Impact: This judgment overruled the 8-judge bench decisions in M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh cases and formed the constitutional basis for data protection laws.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

An independent judiciary is a defining feature of federalism as it acts as an impartial arbiter to resolve disputes between the Union and States regarding the division of powers and interpretation of the Constitution. In a federal system, the judiciary ensures that both levels of government operate within their constitutional limits, maintaining the federal balance.

Let's evaluate each option:

✅ Option 1 – Correct: An independent judiciary is essential to federalism as it resolves Centre-State disputes and protects the constitutional distribution of powers, serving as the guardian of the federal structure.

❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Having elected representatives from constituent units in the Union Legislature is common in both federal and unitary systems with devolved powers; it is not exclusively a federal feature.

❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: The presence of regional party representatives in the Union Cabinet is a political phenomenon, not a constitutional feature that defines federalism.

❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: While Fundamental Rights enforceable by courts are crucial for democracy and rule of law, they exist in both federal and unitary states and are not exclusive indicators of federalism.

📝 Short Notes: Essential Features of Federalism

• Dual Polity: Distribution of powers between the Centre and States with each having distinct spheres of authority.
• Written Constitution: A supreme written constitution that delineates powers and cannot be easily amended unilaterally.
• Independent Judiciary: An impartial judiciary to interpret the Constitution and adjudicate disputes between the Centre and States.
• Rigid Constitution: Amendment process requiring special procedures to protect the federal structure from arbitrary changes.
• Bicameralism: A bicameral legislature where the upper house represents constituent units (like Rajya Sabha representing States).
• Supremacy of Constitution: Both levels of government derive authority from and are bound by the Constitution.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — 1 Only

India has a unified system of citizenship and domicile, unlike federal systems that recognize state-level domiciles. However, any Indian citizen (whether by birth or naturalization) can become the President, and citizenship can be deprived under specific circumstances like fraud or disloyalty.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 5 of the Constitution mentions 'domicile in the territory of India,' and the Supreme Court in Pradeep Jain v. Union of India (1984) ruled that India has only one domicile—the domicile of India—and not separate state domiciles. Similarly, there is only one citizenship for the entire country.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 58 allows any citizen of India to be eligible for the office of President, whether citizen by birth or by naturalization. Unlike the USA, which requires a natural-born citizen for the Presidency, India does not make this distinction.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, the Government can deprive a person of citizenship if it was obtained by fraud, false representation, or concealment of material facts, or if the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.

📝 Short Notes: Citizenship in India

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 2 and 3

The 'Right to the City' is a normative concept advocating inclusive urban citizenship, not a formally recognized universal human right with binding UN monitoring. Statement 1 is incorrect as UN-Habitat promotes this concept through the New Urban Agenda but does not monitor legally binding commitments. Statements 2 and 3 correctly capture the essence of this concept.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: 'Right to the City' is not an agreed universal human right; UN-Habitat does not monitor binding national commitments in this regard.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: This concept gives all inhabitants the right to reclaim public spaces, participate in governance, and shape their cities democratically.

✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The concept promotes inclusive urban citizenship, meaning basic services cannot be denied even to unauthorized colonies; Indian courts have upheld this under Article 21 (Right to Life).

📝 Short Notes: Right to the City

• Origin: Concept developed by French philosopher Henri Lefebvre (1968); popularized in urban planning discourse.
• Definition: Right of all inhabitants to use, occupy, govern, and enjoy cities that are just, inclusive, safe, and sustainable.
• Key Principles: Inclusive citizenship, non-discrimination, social function of land, democratic participation in urban governance.
• UN-Habitat & New Urban Agenda (2016): Promotes the concept but it remains aspirational, not legally binding.
• Indian Context: Courts have held that basic services (water, sanitation) cannot be denied to slum/unauthorized dwellers under Article 21.
• Beneficiaries: Migrants, slum dwellers, informal workers, residents of unauthorized settlements—all recognized as rights-bearing urban citizens.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — A Sovereign Democratic Republic

The Constitution of India came into effect on 26th January 1950, and the original Preamble (adopted in 1949) described India as a "Sovereign Democratic Republic." The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added later through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, during the Emergency period. Therefore, on 26th January 1950, India's constitutional status was precisely "A Sovereign Democratic Republic" without the terms Socialist and Secular.

📝 Short Notes: Evolution of the Preamble

• The Preamble declares India as a Union of States, not a federation in the traditional sense.
• "Sovereign" means India is free from external control and has supreme authority.
• "Democratic" signifies that the government derives its authority from the will of the people.
• "Republic" indicates that the head of state is elected, not hereditary.
• The 42nd Amendment also changed "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation."

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — 1 Only

This question tests the understanding of judicial provisions under the Indian Constitution. Statement 1 is correct as per Article 128, while Statement 2 is incorrect because High Courts lack an explicit constitutional provision equivalent to Article 137 that grants review powers to the Supreme Court.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 128 empowers the Chief Justice of India to request any retired judge of the Supreme Court (or a qualified retired High Court judge) to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge, with the prior consent of the President of India.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While High Courts do possess the power to review their own judgments, this power is not equivalent to that of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court's review power is explicitly granted under Article 137, whereas High Courts derive their review power from their inherent powers as Courts of Record under Article 215, not from an explicit constitutional provision. The scope and source of review powers differ between the two.

📝 Short Notes: Judicial Powers - Review and Ad-hoc Judges

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.

This option captures the four essential elements of a state as recognized in political science: (1) Population (a community of persons), (2) Territory (definite geographical area), (3) Government (organized system of governance), and (4) Sovereignty (independence from external control). These are the classical elements that distinguish a state from other political entities.

Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 2 focuses on functions like maintaining law and order and protecting natural rights, which are purposes of the state but not part of its core definition.
• Option 3 emphasizes culture and tradition, which are not essential defining characteristics of a state in political theory.
• Option 4 mentions specific institutional features (executive responsible to central authority, independent judiciary) which are characteristics of particular types of governments, not universal elements of all states.

📝 Short Notes: Four Essential Elements of a State

• Internal Sovereignty: Supreme authority of the state over all individuals and associations within its territory
• External Sovereignty: Independence from control by other states in international relations
• These four elements were formalized in the Montevideo Convention (1933) on the Rights and Duties of States
• A state may have recognition from other states, but recognition is not an essential element of statehood

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2

India adopted the parliamentary system from the British model but introduced significant modifications. The most crucial difference is that while the British Parliament enjoys absolute sovereignty, the Indian Parliament operates within constitutional limits, making the Constitution supreme rather than Parliament.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The British Parliament is supreme and sovereign with unlimited legislative powers, whereas in India, Parliament's legislative authority is limited by the Constitution. The judiciary can strike down Parliamentary laws if they violate constitutional provisions, establishing the supremacy of the Constitution over Parliament.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: In India, matters concerning the constitutionality of Parliamentary Acts or Constitutional Amendments are referred to the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court. This judicial review mechanism, absent in the British system, ensures that all legislation conforms to constitutional principles and basic structure.

📝 Short Notes: Parliamentary Democracy — British vs Indian Model

• Basic Structure Doctrine: Established in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), it limits Parliament's power to amend the Constitution by protecting its basic features
• Constitution Bench: Comprises at least 5 Supreme Court judges; hears matters involving substantial questions of constitutional interpretation
• Article 13: Declares laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void, establishing judicial review
• Rule of Law: Both models follow rule of law, but its application differs due to constitutional supremacy in India

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Article 14

A legislation that confers unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power on the executive violates Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees Equality Before Law and Equal Protection of Laws. Such arbitrary power violates the principle of fairness and reasonableness, as it allows discriminatory application of law without any guiding principles.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• Article 28 relates to freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in educational institutions.
• Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies and empowers citizens to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights.
• Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy that mandates the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens.

📝 Short Notes: Article 14 and Doctrine of Arbitrariness

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — Separation of powers

The doctrine of Separation of Powers, which divides governmental authority among the legislature, executive, and judiciary, constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy. This separation prevents concentration of power in any single branch and ensures that each organ acts as a check and balance on the others, thereby protecting individual rights and freedoms from arbitrary state action.

📝 Short Notes: Separation of Powers

• Basic Principle: Division of governmental powers among three independent organs—Legislature (makes laws), Executive (implements laws), and Judiciary (interprets laws).
• Origin: Propounded by French philosopher Montesquieu in his work 'The Spirit of Laws' (1748) as essential for political liberty.
• Indian Context: India follows a system of checks and balances rather than strict separation. While functional separation exists, there is considerable overlap (e.g., Council of Ministers is part of both legislature and executive).
• Constitutional Provisions: Articles 50 (separation of judiciary from executive), 53 (executive power vested in President), 74 (Council of Ministers to aid President), and 121/211 (restrictions on discussing judicial conduct in legislature).
• Checks and Balances: Legislature controls executive through no-confidence motions and financial control; Judiciary reviews executive actions and legislative enactments through judicial review; Executive appoints judges and implements court decisions.
• Why Best Safeguard: Prevents tyranny by ensuring no single organ becomes all-powerful; protects individual liberty by distributing authority; enables accountability through mutual oversight.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — The Directive Principles of State Policy

The concentration of wealth violates the Directive Principles of State Policy, specifically Article 39(b) and 39(c) of the Constitution. Article 39(b) directs the State to ensure that the ownership and control of material resources of the community are distributed to best serve the common good, while Article 39(c) mandates that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment. These provisions form the constitutional basis for preventing economic inequality and ensuring distributive justice.

📝 Short Notes: Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) - Economic Justice

• Article 39(b): Directs the State to ensure that ownership and control of material resources are distributed to subserve the common good and prevent concentration in few hands.
• Article 39(c): Ensures that the economic system does not result in concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.
• Article 38: The State shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing a social order permeated by justice—social, economic, and political—and minimize inequalities.
• Article 39A: Provides for equal justice and free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for justice are not denied due to economic or other disabilities.
• Nature: DPSPs are non-justiciable (not enforceable by courts) but fundamental in governance as per Article 37.
• Objective: To establish a welfare state based on principles of economic democracy and social justice.