UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2021 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
- Permaculture Farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre-dominant.
- Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
- Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
- Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1, 2 and 4
This question tests the understanding of differences between permaculture farming and conventional chemical farming. Permaculture emphasizes biodiversity, soil health, and sustainable practices like mulching, while conventional farming relies on monocultures and chemical inputs that can degrade soil quality.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Permaculture farming discourages monoculture and promotes polyculture systems with diverse crops, while conventional chemical farming predominantly uses monoculture for efficiency and ease of mechanization.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Conventional chemical farming causes soil salinity due to excessive use of synthetic fertilizers and poor irrigation practices, whereas permaculture maintains soil health through organic matter and prevents salinization.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Permaculture farming can be successfully practiced in semi-arid regions using water harvesting, mulching, and drought-resistant crops; it is not limited by aridity as the statement suggests.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Mulching is a core practice in permaculture to conserve moisture, suppress weeds, and improve soil fertility, but it is not essential in conventional chemical farming which relies on herbicides and irrigation.
📝 Short Notes: Permaculture vs Conventional Farming
| Aspect | Permaculture Farming | Conventional Chemical Farming |
|---|---|---|
| Crop Pattern | Polyculture, biodiversity encouraged | Monoculture predominant |
| Soil Health | Enhanced through organic matter, no salinity issues | Degradation, salinization from chemicals |
| Water Management | Rainwater harvesting, moisture conservation | Heavy irrigation dependency |
| Mulching | Essential practice | Not necessary, herbicides used |
| Chemical Use | Minimal or none | Heavy reliance on pesticides and fertilizers |
| Sustainability | Long-term ecological balance | Short-term productivity focus |
| Adaptability | Adaptable to various climates including semi-arid | Requires specific conditions |
The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world.
The Common Carbon Metric (CCM) is a protocol developed by UNEP's Sustainable Buildings & Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI) specifically for measuring energy use and reporting greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from building operations. It provides a universal, standardized method to measure a building's carbon footprint, enabling consistent assessment and comparison of emissions from buildings worldwide, thereby supporting global efforts toward energy efficiency and emissions reductions in the built environment.
📝 Short Notes: Common Carbon Metric (CCM)
- Developed by: United Nations Environment Programme's Sustainable Buildings & Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI)
- Purpose: Standardized protocol for measuring energy consumption and GHG emissions from building operations globally
- Key Feature: Provides a universal methodology allowing consistent assessment and comparison of building carbon footprints across different countries and regions
- Focus Area: Building sector operations (not construction, but operational energy use)
- Objective: Support emissions reductions through accurate measurement of energy efficiency in buildings
- Scope: Enables benchmarking and performance tracking of buildings worldwide using a common measurement framework
Which one of the following is a filter feeder?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Oyster
Oysters are filter feeders that strain suspended matter and food particles from water by passing it over specialized filtering structures called gills. Among the given options, only oysters possess this feeding mechanism, while catfish are bottom feeders, octopuses are predators, and pelicans are visual hunters that catch fish.
📝 Short Notes: Filter Feeders
- Definition: Filter feeders are organisms that feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water through specialized filtering structures.
- Common Examples: Clams, oysters, mussels, sponges, krill, baleen whales, and certain fish including some sharks.
- Avian Filter Feeders: Flamingos and certain duck species use filter feeding mechanisms.
- Ecological Role: Filter feeders act as ecosystem engineers by clarifying water and removing suspended particles, improving water quality.
- Bioaccumulation: They serve as indicator organisms due to their role in bioaccumulation of pollutants and toxins from water.
- Pearl Production: Oysters and mussels are commercially important for pearl farming, practiced in states like Gujarat, Maharashtra, Kerala, Odisha, and others in India.
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With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on Forests’. Which of the following statements are correct?
- It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
- It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
- It is a legally binding international declaration.
- It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
- India was one of the signatories at its inception.
Select the Correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1, 2, and 4
The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a voluntary political declaration endorsed at the 2014 UN Climate Summit. It sets a global timeline to cut natural forest loss in half by 2020 and end it by 2030, with endorsement from governments, major corporations, and indigenous communities. However, it is not legally binding and India has not endorsed it.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The NYDF was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in New York in September 2014.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: It endorses a global timeline aiming to halve deforestation by 2020 and end natural forest loss by 2030.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The NYDF is a voluntary political declaration, not a legally binding international treaty.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: It is endorsed by a multi-stakeholder coalition including governments, companies, civil society organizations, and indigenous communities (over 190 endorsers).
❌ Statement 5 – Incorrect: India is not among the signatories/endorsers of the New York Declaration on Forests.
In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrient to enter the cycle?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Phosphorus Cycle
The Phosphorus Cycle is unique among biogeochemical cycles as it lacks a gaseous phase and primarily relies on the weathering of phosphate-rich rocks as its main source. Geological weathering processes break down these rocks over time, releasing phosphate ions (PO₄³⁻) into the soil and water, which are then absorbed by plants and move through the food chain.
Why other options are incorrect:
• Carbon Cycle: Primarily driven by atmospheric CO₂ from respiration, combustion, and volcanic activity, not rock weathering.
• Nitrogen Cycle: Relies on atmospheric nitrogen with fixation by bacteria as the key process, not weathering of rocks.
• Sulphur Cycle: Main sources include volcanic eruptions, decaying organic matter, and fossil fuel combustion, not primarily rock weathering.
📝 Short Notes: Biogeochemical Cycles
| Cycle | Main Source of Nutrient | Key Features |
|---|---|---|
| Phosphorus Cycle | Weathering of phosphate rocks | No gaseous phase; slowest cycle; limiting nutrient in aquatic ecosystems |
| Carbon Cycle | Atmospheric CO₂ | Involves photosynthesis, respiration, combustion; has gaseous phase |
| Nitrogen Cycle | Atmospheric N₂ | Nitrogen fixation by bacteria; involves nitrification, denitrification |
| Sulphur Cycle | Volcanic activity, fossil fuels | Involves atmospheric SO₂; acid rain formation |
| Water Cycle | Oceans, water bodies | Evaporation, condensation, precipitation processes |
Which of the following are detritivores?
- Earthworms
- Jellyfish
- Millipedes
- Seahorses
- Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1, 3 and 5 Only
Detritivores are organisms that feed on dead and decaying organic matter (detritus), playing a crucial role in nutrient cycling and decomposition. Earthworms, millipedes, and woodlice are classic examples of detritivores that break down organic debris in soil and forest floors. Jellyfish are primarily carnivorous filter feeders that consume plankton and small fish, while seahorses are also carnivores feeding on small shrimp and invertebrates—neither are detritivores.
✅ Statement 1 (Earthworms) – Correct: Earthworms are classic detritivores that consume and break down organic matter in soil, enhancing soil fertility through decomposition.
❌ Statement 2 (Jellyfish) – Incorrect: Jellyfish are carnivorous organisms that primarily feed on plankton and small fish through filter feeding, not on detritus.
✅ Statement 3 (Millipedes) – Correct: Millipedes are detritivores that feed on decaying leaves and organic debris on forest floors, aiding in decomposition.
❌ Statement 4 (Seahorses) – Incorrect: Seahorses are carnivores that feed on small shrimp, plankton, and other small invertebrates, not on dead organic matter.
✅ Statement 5 (Woodlice) – Correct: Woodlice (also called pill bugs or roly-polies) are terrestrial crustaceans that feed on decaying plant and animal matter as detritivores.
📝 Short Notes: Detritivores and Decomposers
- Detritivores: Organisms that feed on dead organic matter (detritus), including dead plant material, animal carcasses, and feces. They physically break down organic matter into smaller pieces.
- Common Examples: Earthworms, millipedes, woodlice, dung beetles, termites, some snails, and certain types of flies and beetles.
- Role in Ecosystem: Detritivores accelerate decomposition by fragmenting organic matter, increasing surface area for microbial action, and mixing organic matter with soil.
- Difference from Decomposers: Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) chemically break down organic matter at molecular level, while detritivores physically consume and fragment it.
- Nutrient Cycling: Detritivores play a critical role in nutrient cycling by releasing nutrients locked in dead organic matter back into the soil for plant uptake.
- Habitat: Most detritivores are found in soil, leaf litter, forest floors, and aquatic sediments where organic debris accumulates.
Consider the following animals:
- Hedgehog
- Marmot
- Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1 and 3
Among the given animals, hedgehogs and pangolins roll up into a tight ball as a defensive mechanism to protect their vulnerable parts from predators. Hedgehogs use their sharp spines, while pangolins use their tough keratin scales for protection. Marmots, on the other hand, do not roll up; they rely on burrows and alarm calls to avoid predators.
✅ Hedgehog – Correct: Rolls into a tight ball with spines covering vulnerable soft belly parts when threatened.
❌ Marmot – Incorrect: Does not roll up; uses burrows and vocal warning calls as primary defense against predators.
✅ Pangolin – Correct: Rolls into a protective ball, using overlapping keratin scales as armor to shield vulnerable underside.
📝 Short Notes: Defensive Mechanisms in Animals
- Hedgehog: Small spiny mammals found in Europe, Asia, and Africa; covered with about 5,000-7,000 spines made of keratin; rolls into a ball when threatened, making it difficult for predators to attack.
- Pangolin: Only mammal covered in scales; found in Asia and Africa; scales made of keratin (same material as human nails); listed as critically endangered due to illegal wildlife trade; all eight species protected under CITES.
- Marmot: Large ground squirrels found in mountainous areas; social animals living in burrows; use sentinel behavior where one individual watches for predators while others forage; emit high-pitched whistles as alarm calls.
- Other Rolling Animals: Armadillos (three-banded armadillo can roll completely), pill millipedes, pill bugs (woodlice), and some species of armored caterpillars also use rolling as defense.
- Types of Defense Mechanisms: Physical barriers (spines, scales, shells), camouflage, warning coloration, chemical defense (toxins), behavioral (fleeing, freezing, rolling), and group defense.
Bisphenol A (BPA) , a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Polycarbonate
Bisphenol A (BPA) is a key structural component in the manufacture of polycarbonate plastics. Polycarbonates are widely used in consumer products such as water bottles, food storage containers, eyeglass lenses, and CDs/DVDs. BPA has raised significant health concerns as it can act as an endocrine disruptor, interfering with the body's hormonal system.
📝 Short Notes: Types of Plastics and BPA
| Plastic Type | Common Uses | Contains BPA? |
|---|---|---|
| Polycarbonate (PC) | Water bottles, food containers, eyeglass lenses, CDs/DVDs, baby bottles | Yes – BPA is a key component |
| Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) | Beverage bottles, food packaging, synthetic fibers | No |
| Low Density Polyethylene (LDPE) | Plastic bags, squeeze bottles, container lids | No |
| Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) | Pipes, flooring, wire insulation, medical tubing | No |
| High Density Polyethylene (HDPE) | Milk jugs, detergent bottles, toys | No |
- BPA Health Concerns: Acts as endocrine disruptor, mimics estrogen, linked to reproductive issues, developmental problems, and metabolic disorders
- BPA-Free Alternatives: Many manufacturers now produce BPA-free polycarbonates or use alternative plastics
- Regulation: Several countries have banned BPA in baby bottles and food contact materials
Triclosan considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Toiletries
Triclosan (TCS) is an antibacterial and antifungal agent commonly found in various personal care and consumer products. It is most prevalently present in toiletries such as toothpaste, soaps, hand sanitizers, body washes, and deodorants. Long-term exposure to high levels of triclosan has raised health and environmental concerns, leading to restrictions and bans in several countries.
📝 Short Notes: Triclosan
- Chemical Nature: Triclosan is a synthetic antimicrobial compound used to reduce or prevent bacterial contamination.
- Common Products: Found in antibacterial soaps, toothpaste, hand sanitizers, body washes, detergents, cosmetics, and some medical equipment.
- Health Concerns: Prolonged exposure may disrupt hormone regulation (endocrine disruption), contribute to antibiotic resistance, and cause skin irritation.
- Environmental Impact: Triclosan can persist in the environment, contaminate water bodies, and harm aquatic ecosystems.
- Regulatory Actions: The US FDA banned triclosan from over-the-counter antiseptic wash products in 2016; the EU restricted its use in cosmetics in 2014.
- Alternatives: Manufacturers are increasingly using safer alternatives like alcohol-based sanitizers and natural antimicrobial agents.
Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Sugarcane
Water efficiency of a crop refers to the amount of water required per unit of biomass or yield produced. Sugarcane is the least water-efficient crop among the given options, requiring approximately 1800-2200 mm of water per season. In contrast, sunflower requires about 672 mm/season, pearl millet (a drought-tolerant crop) needs around 350 mm/season, and red gram uses about 250-400 mm/season.
📝 Short Notes: Water Requirements of Major Crops
| Crop | Water Requirement (mm/season) | Water Efficiency |
|---|---|---|
| Sugarcane | 1800-2200 | Very Low (least efficient) |
| Rice (Paddy) | 1200-1500 | Low |
| Cotton | 700-1300 | Moderate |
| Sunflower | 600-700 | Moderate-High |
| Pearl Millet (Bajra) | 300-400 | High |
| Red Gram (Arhar) | 250-400 | High |
| Sorghum (Jowar) | 400-500 | High |
- Sugarcane: Most water-intensive crop; grown in well-irrigated areas; major water consumer in agriculture
- Millets (Pearl Millet, Sorghum): Drought-resistant crops; suitable for rainfed agriculture; promoted under climate-smart agriculture
- Pulses (Red Gram): Low water requirement; nitrogen-fixing crops; important for food security and sustainable agriculture
- Water-use Efficiency: Measured as crop yield per unit of water consumed; critical parameter for sustainable water management
R2 Code of Practices constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry.
The R2 (Responsible Recycling) Code of Practices is a comprehensive set of standards specifically designed for the electronics recycling industry to ensure environmentally sound and socially responsible handling of electronic waste. It provides guidelines for data security, material handling, downstream vendor management, and worker health and safety in e-waste recycling operations.
📝 Short Notes: R2 Code of Practices
- Full Form: R2 stands for Responsible Recycling, developed for electronics recycling industry.
- Purpose: Establishes standards for safe, ethical, and environmentally responsible recycling of electronic equipment and e-waste.
- Key Areas Covered: Data security and destruction, material handling, downstream vendor accountability, environmental health and safety, worker protection.
- Certification: R2 certification is recognized globally as a mark of responsible e-waste recycling practices.
- Focus on E-Waste: Addresses growing concerns about toxic materials in electronics (lead, mercury, cadmium) and promotes proper disposal and recycling methods.
Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
- They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
- The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
- They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 3 Only
Copper smelting plants are a major environmental concern due to their emission of sulfur dioxide and the potential for heavy metal leaching from copper slag. The primary gaseous pollutant is SO₂, not carbon monoxide.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Copper smelting plants do not typically release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide; the primary gaseous pollutant of concern is sulfur dioxide (SO₂).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Copper slag, a byproduct of smelting, contains heavy metals like arsenic, lead, and cadmium, which can leach into soil and groundwater, causing environmental contamination.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Copper smelting releases large amounts of sulfur dioxide because most copper ores are sulfide minerals (like chalcopyrite), and sulfur is oxidized to SO₂ during roasting and smelting processes.
📝 Short Notes: Environmental Concerns of Copper Smelting
- Primary Pollutant: Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is the main gaseous emission from copper smelting, as copper ores are predominantly sulfide minerals.
- Copper Slag: Contains heavy metals (arsenic, lead, cadmium, mercury) that can leach into environment, contaminating soil and water resources.
- Acid Rain: SO₂ emissions contribute to acid rain formation, damaging ecosystems, crops, and infrastructure.
- Health Impacts: SO₂ causes respiratory problems; heavy metals from slag can bioaccumulate and cause neurological and developmental issues.
- Mitigation Measures: Use of scrubbers to capture SO₂, proper slag management, adoption of cleaner smelting technologies, and recovery of sulfur for sulfuric acid production.
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
- Copepods
- Cyanobacteria
- Diatoms
- Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 3
Primary producers in ocean food chains are organisms that produce organic compounds from inorganic substances through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. Among the given organisms, cyanobacteria and diatoms are photosynthetic organisms that convert sunlight into chemical energy, forming the base of marine food webs. Copepods and foraminifera are consumers (zooplankton) that feed on primary producers.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Copepods are small crustacean zooplankton that function as primary consumers, feeding on phytoplankton and organic matter.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic bacteria capable of performing photosynthesis and are important primary producers in marine ecosystems.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Diatoms are unicellular algae (phytoplankton) that are among the most significant primary producers in oceans, contributing up to 40% of marine primary productivity.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Foraminifera are single-celled protists that are primarily consumers, feeding on organic particles and smaller organisms using pseudopodia.
📝 Short Notes: Marine Primary Producers and Plankton
- Primary Producers: Organisms that synthesize organic compounds from carbon dioxide through photosynthesis (using sunlight) or chemosynthesis, forming the base of food chains.
- Phytoplankton: Microscopic photosynthetic organisms drifting in water bodies; includes diatoms, dinoflagellates, cyanobacteria, and green algae.
- Diatoms: Most abundant phytoplankton with silica cell walls (frustules); responsible for 20-40% of Earth's oxygen production and major primary producers in oceans.
- Cyanobacteria: Photosynthetic bacteria (blue-green algae); can fix atmospheric nitrogen; some species form harmful algal blooms.
- Zooplankton: Heterotrophic organisms that feed on phytoplankton and organic matter; includes copepods, foraminifera, krill, and jellyfish larvae.
- Copepods: Small crustaceans that are the most abundant zooplankton; primary consumers linking phytoplankton to higher trophic levels.
- Foraminifera: Amoeboid protists with shells (tests); mostly marine; some are benthic while others are planktonic; feed on bacteria, algae, and detritus.
With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements:
- They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
- They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
- They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 3 only
This question tests knowledge about the regulatory framework and powers of Urban Cooperative Banks in India. Statement 1 is incorrect as UCBs are jointly regulated by RBI and State Governments, not solely by local boards set up by State Governments. Statements 2 and 3 are correct regarding their capital-raising powers and legislative history.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Urban Cooperative Banks are jointly regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and respective State Governments under a dual control structure, not solely by local boards set up by State Governments. The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 further strengthened RBI's regulatory oversight over UCBs.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: UCBs can issue equity shares and preference shares to raise capital, as permitted under the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020, subject to RBI approval, which helps them strengthen their capital base.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Urban Cooperative Banks were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an amendment in 1966, which gave RBI regulatory powers over their banking operations while administrative control remained with state cooperative laws.
📝 Short Notes: Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Definition | Primary cooperative credit societies operating in urban and semi-urban areas, providing banking and financial services to small businesses, artisans, and middle-class segments |
| Dual Regulation | Regulated by both RBI (banking operations) and State Governments/Central Registrar (administrative and management aspects under Cooperative Societies Acts) |
| Legislative History | 1966 Amendment to Banking Regulation Act, 1949 brought UCBs under RBI's regulatory purview for banking functions |
| 2020 Amendment | Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 enhanced RBI's powers over UCBs including supersession of boards, removal of directors, and merger/reconstruction powers |
| Capital Raising | Can issue equity shares, preference shares, and unsecured debentures with RBI approval (post-2020 Amendment) |
| Types | Scheduled UCBs (listed in RBI's Second Schedule) and Non-Scheduled UCBs |
| Significance | Important for financial inclusion, serve as an alternative to commercial banks in urban areas, support small-scale industries and self-employed individuals |
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Increase in the banking habit of the people.
The money multiplier depends on the reserve ratio and the proportion of money held as deposits versus cash. When more people deposit money in banks instead of holding cash, banks receive greater reserves to lend out, which amplifies the credit creation process and increases the money multiplier.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: An increase in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) reduces the lending capacity of banks as they must hold more reserves with the RBI, thereby decreasing the money multiplier.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: An increase in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requires banks to keep more deposits in liquid assets like government securities, reducing their lending capacity and thus decreasing the money multiplier.
✅ Option 3 – Correct: Greater banking habits mean more deposits flow into the banking system, enabling banks to lend more and create additional credit, thereby increasing the money multiplier.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Population increase alone does not affect the money multiplier unless it is accompanied by increased banking penetration or deposit mobilization.
📝 Short Notes: Money Multiplier
- Definition: The money multiplier is the ratio of the total money supply to the monetary base (reserves), indicating how much the money supply can expand through credit creation.
- Formula: Money Multiplier = 1 / Reserve Ratio (simplified version considering only reserve requirements)
- Factors Increasing Money Multiplier: Lower CRR/SLR, higher deposit ratio (more banking habits), lower currency-deposit ratio
- Factors Decreasing Money Multiplier: Higher CRR/SLR, preference for cash holdings, lower public confidence in banks
- Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The percentage of net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that banks must maintain as cash reserves with RBI; currently around 4.5%
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The percentage of NDTL that banks must maintain in liquid assets like government securities, gold, or cash; currently around 18%
- Credit Creation: The process by which banks multiply deposits through successive lending cycles, limited by reserve requirements and public cash preferences
In India, the central bank’s function as the ‘lender of last resort’ usually refers to which of the following?
- Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources.
- Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis.
- Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 Only
The 'lender of last resort' (LoLR) function of the Reserve Bank of India specifically refers to its role in providing emergency liquidity support to commercial banks and financial institutions during temporary crises. This mechanism is crucial for maintaining financial stability and preventing bank runs or systemic failures.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The LoLR function does not extend to trade and industry bodies; these entities borrow from commercial banks and financial institutions, not directly from the central bank under this function.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: This is the precise definition of the LoLR function—RBI provides liquidity to banks facing temporary crises through repo operations, marginal standing facility (MSF), and other emergency lending mechanisms.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: While RBI participates in government securities markets, lending to governments for budgetary deficits is not part of the LoLR function; government borrowing occurs through market mechanisms, treasury bills, and bonds.
📝 Short Notes: Lender of Last Resort (LoLR)
- Primary Beneficiaries: Commercial banks and financial institutions facing temporary liquidity crunch, not trade/industry or government directly.
- Key Mechanisms: Repo operations, Marginal Standing Facility (MSF), Emergency Liquidity Assistance (ELA), and discount window operations.
- Purpose: Prevents bank runs, maintains confidence in the banking system, and ensures financial stability during crisis situations.
- Conditions: Usually provided against collateral, at penalty rates, and with strict conditionalities to prevent moral hazard.
- Government Financing: RBI's support to government (through WMA or OMO) is a separate function distinct from LoLR; direct monetization of deficit is now restricted under FRBM Act.
- Historical Context: Ways and Means Advances (WMA) to government were available but are limited; automatic monetization ended in 1997 following the agreement between RBI and Government of India.
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.
- The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
- The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 2
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as they accurately describe the RBI Retail Direct scheme for retail investors and the NDS-OM platform for government securities trading. Statement 3 is incorrect because CDSL was promoted by BSE with commercial banks, not the RBI.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under the RBI Retail Direct scheme launched in November 2021, retail investors can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market through their demat accounts or by opening a Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching (NDS-OM) is an anonymous, electronic, screen-based trading platform for government securities owned by the Reserve Bank of India and operated by the Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL).
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Central Depository Services Ltd (CDSL) was promoted by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) in association with leading commercial banks like State Bank of India, Bank of India, and HDFC Bank, not by the RBI.
📝 Short Notes: Government Securities Market Infrastructure
- RBI Retail Direct Scheme: Launched in November 2021 to enable direct retail participation in government securities markets through online portal.
- NDS-OM Platform: Electronic trading platform for G-Secs operated since 2005; provides anonymous order matching for primary dealers, banks, and other eligible participants.
- Central Depositories in India: Two depositories - NSDL (promoted by NSE, IDBI Bank, and Unit Trust of India) and CDSL (promoted by BSE with commercial banks).
- Treasury Bills: Short-term government securities with maturities of 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days; issued at discount and redeemed at face value.
- Government of India Bonds: Long-term debt instruments issued by the Central Government with varying maturities ranging from 5 to 40 years.
Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effects?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit.
The creation of new money (monetization of debt) is the most inflationary method of financing a budget deficit because it directly increases the monetary base without any corresponding increase in the production of goods and services. When the central bank prints new currency to fund government expenditure, it expands the money supply in the economy, leading to excess liquidity chasing the same amount of goods, which results in a sharp rise in price levels. Unlike other methods that merely transfer existing money within the economy, money creation adds net new purchasing power, making it inherently inflationary.
❌ Option 1 – Repayment of Public debt: This increases liquidity in public hands but is less inflationary as funds typically come from tax revenues, which reduce disposable income elsewhere.
❌ Option 2 – Borrowing from the public: This is the least inflationary method as it involves transfer of existing money from the public to the government without changing the total money supply.
❌ Option 3 – Borrowing from banks: While this can lead to credit creation and some money supply expansion, its inflationary impact is significantly lower than direct money creation.
📝 Short Notes: Methods of Deficit Financing and Inflationary Impact
| Method | Mechanism | Impact on Money Supply | Inflationary Pressure |
|---|---|---|---|
| Borrowing from Public | Government borrows from individuals/institutions through bonds | No change (transfer of existing money) | Least inflationary |
| Borrowing from Banks | Government borrows from commercial banks | Moderate increase (through credit creation) | Moderately inflationary |
| Creation of New Money | Central bank prints new currency (monetization) | Direct increase in monetary base | Most inflationary |
| Repayment of Debt | Government transfers funds back to creditors | Increases public liquidity | Mildly inflationary |
- High-powered money: Also called reserve money or monetary base, consists of currency in circulation and reserves held by commercial banks with the central bank.
- Deficit Financing: When government expenditure exceeds revenue and the deficit is financed by printing new money rather than borrowing.
- Monetization of Debt: Process where the central bank purchases government bonds directly, effectively printing money to finance government spending.
- Inflationary Impact Principle: Inflation occurs when money supply increases faster than the production of goods and services in the economy.
- Crowding Out Effect: When government borrows from the public, it may reduce funds available for private investment, but doesn't directly cause inflation.
With reference to Indian economy, demand pull-inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?
- Expansionary policies
- Fiscal stimulus
- Inflation-indexing wages
- Higher - purchasing power
- Rising interest rates
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1, 2 and 4 Only
Demand-pull inflation occurs when aggregate demand in an economy outpaces aggregate supply, leading to upward pressure on prices. Expansionary policies (monetary or fiscal), fiscal stimulus through increased government spending, and higher purchasing power all directly increase aggregate demand, thereby causing or intensifying demand-pull inflation.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Expansionary policies like increased government spending or lower interest rates boost consumer spending and investment, increasing aggregate demand beyond supply capacity.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Fiscal stimulus through government expenditure directly injects money into the economy, raising aggregate demand and creating inflationary pressures when supply cannot match demand.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Inflation-indexing wages is typically a consequence of existing inflation rather than a primary cause of demand-pull inflation; it creates a wage-price spiral (cost-push inflation) rather than demand-pull inflation.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Higher purchasing power due to wage increases, tax cuts, or wealth effects enables consumers to spend more, directly increasing aggregate demand for goods and services.
❌ Statement 5 – Incorrect: Rising interest rates are a contractionary monetary policy tool that reduces borrowing and consumption, thereby decreasing aggregate demand and controlling inflation rather than causing it.
📝 Short Notes: Demand-Pull Inflation
| Factor | Effect on Demand-Pull Inflation | Mechanism |
|---|---|---|
| Expansionary Monetary Policy | Increases | Lower interest rates → Cheaper credit → Higher consumption and investment |
| Fiscal Stimulus | Increases | Government spending → Direct demand injection → Aggregate demand rises |
| Higher Purchasing Power | Increases | Wage hikes/tax cuts → More disposable income → Greater consumer spending |
| Rising Interest Rates | Decreases | Expensive borrowing → Reduced consumption → Lower aggregate demand |
| Inflation-Indexing Wages | Neutral/Cost-Push | Wages adjust to inflation → May trigger wage-price spiral (cost-push, not demand-pull) |
- Demand-Pull Inflation: "Too much money chasing too few goods" - Classical definition
- Key Drivers: Monetary expansion, fiscal expansion, rising consumer confidence, export boom, asset price increases
- Control Measures: Contractionary monetary policy (raising interest rates, increasing CRR/SLR), reducing government spending, increasing taxes
- Difference from Cost-Push: Demand-pull originates from demand side; cost-push originates from supply side (rising input costs)
Which one of the following effects of creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion.
The primary concern of the Government of India regarding black money is the substantial loss of tax revenue, which directly impacts the state exchequer's ability to fund essential public services, infrastructure development, and welfare programs. While other effects like investment in real estate, unproductive assets, or political donations are concerning, the most critical impact is the erosion of the fiscal capacity of the government due to systematic tax evasion. Black money, by its very nature, represents untaxed income that deprives the state of resources needed for national development and governance.
📝 Short Notes: Black Money and Its Economic Impact
- Black Money Definition: Income earned through illegal means or legal means but not reported to tax authorities to avoid taxation.
- Primary Government Concern: Revenue loss through tax evasion directly weakens fiscal capacity to fund public expenditure.
- Secondary Effects: Includes distortion of resource allocation, inflation in asset markets (real estate, gold), and undermining formal economy.
- Government Measures: Demonetization (2016), Income Declaration Schemes, Benami Transactions Act, Black Money Act (2015), and international cooperation through treaties.
- Economic Impact: Reduces GDP accuracy, creates parallel economy, increases income inequality, and hampers planned development.
- Estimation Challenges: Difficult to quantify precisely; various studies estimate black economy at 20-40% of GDP historically.
UPSC Prelims 2021 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Environment & Ecology
18 Qs (18%)Indian Polity
17 Qs (17%)Indian Economy
15 Qs (15%)Science & Technology
11 Qs (11%)Modern History
7 Qs (7%)World Geography
7 Qs (7%)Current Affairs
6 Qs (6%)Indian Geography
5 Qs (5%)Indian Art & Culture
5 Qs (5%)Medieval History
4 Qs (4%)Ancient History
4 Qs (4%)International Relations
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2021?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2021?
- Environment & Ecology: 18 questions (18%)
- Indian Polity: 17 questions (17%)
- Indian Economy: 15 questions (15%)
- Science & Technology: 11 questions (11%)
- Modern History: 7 questions (7%)
- World Geography: 7 questions (7%)
- Current Affairs: 6 questions (6%)
- Indian Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 5 questions (5%)
- Medieval History: 4 questions (4%)
- Ancient History: 4 questions (4%)
- International Relations: 1 questions (1%)