UPSC Prelims 2020 Question Paper

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 3 only

This question tests knowledge of specific historical terms used during the colonial and pre-colonial periods in India. Only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched, while pair 1 incorrectly describes Aurang.

❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Aurang was not in-charge of the treasury; it was a Persian term for a warehouse or workshop where goods were collected and processed before sale.

✅ Pair 2 – Correct: Banian (or Baniya) refers to Indian agents employed by the East India Company who managed business transactions, served as interpreters, brokers, and cash-keepers, often functioning as trading partners rather than mere servants.

✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Mirasidar (from Persian 'miras' meaning inheritance) was a hereditary landowner and co-proprietor who was designated as a revenue payer to the state.

📝 Short Notes: Colonial Administrative and Commercial Terms

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Indian handicrafts were ruined

The Industrial Revolution in Britain during the first half of the 19th century led to the mass production of cheap machine-made goods, which flooded Indian markets. This resulted in the deindustrialization and ruin of India's traditional cottage and handicraft industries, particularly textiles, as they could not compete with British imports.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Industrial Revolution in Britain led to cheap machine-made goods that destroyed traditional Indian handicrafts and cottage industries through unfair competition.

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Machines were not introduced in Indian textile industry in large numbers during the first half of the 19th century; modern mills with imported machinery only started emerging in the 1850s in cities like Bombay and Ahmedabad.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Railway lines were not laid in many parts during the first half of the 19th century; the first railway line (Bombay-Thane) was inaugurated only in 1853, and significant expansion occurred only in the latter half of the century.

❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Heavy duties were not imposed on British imports; rather, British goods enjoyed duty-free or low-duty access to Indian markets, while Indian goods faced high tariffs in Britain, creating an unequal trade relationship.

📝 Short Notes: Economic Impact of Industrial Revolution on India

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions

The decline of indigo cultivation in India by the early 20th century was primarily due to the invention of synthetic dyes in Germany (1880s), which were cheaper, easier to produce, and more consistent in quality than natural indigo. This led to a collapse in the global demand for natural indigo, making its cultivation economically unviable for planters in India. While peasant resistance (especially the Indigo Revolt of 1859-60) did occur earlier, the decisive factor for decline was the economic obsolescence caused by synthetic alternatives.

📝 Short Notes: Indigo Cultivation in India

• Colonial Indigo System: European planters forced Indian peasants to cultivate indigo on their land through tinkathia system (3/20th of land) and oppressive contracts.
• Indigo Revolt (1859-60): Peasant uprising in Bengal against exploitative planters, supported by missionaries and Bengali intellectuals; led to government inquiry (Indigo Commission, 1860).
• Champaran Satyagraha (1917): Gandhi's first major movement in India against indigo planters in Bihar, forcing abolition of the tinkathia system.
• Synthetic Dyes (1880s): German chemist Adolf von Baeyer synthesized indigo artificially; commercial production began in 1897 by BASF.
• Economic Impact: By 1913, synthetic indigo dominated the market; natural indigo cultivation became unprofitable and virtually disappeared by 1920s.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 3 only

The Rakhmabai case (1884) was a landmark litigation concerning a child marriage where Rakhmabai refused to live with her husband Dadaji Bhikaji, who then filed a suit for restitution of conjugal rights. The case sparked nationwide debate on child marriage and age of consent, ultimately contributing to the Age of Consent Act, 1891.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The case did not revolve around women's right to education; though Rakhmabai was educated and later became a doctor, the legal dispute concerned her marital obligations.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The case generated significant public discourse on child marriage and directly influenced the passage of the Age of Consent Act, 1891, which raised the age of consent from 10 to 12 years.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The litigation was initiated by her husband seeking restitution of conjugal rights after Rakhmabai refused to cohabit with him following their child marriage when she was 11 years old.

📝 Short Notes: Rakhmabai Case and Social Reforms

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — 2-4-1-3

The correct chronological sequence begins with Mahendravarman-I establishing Pallava power (c. 600-630 CE), followed by Gopala founding the Pala dynasty (c. 750 CE), then King Bhoja's rise among the Pratiharas (836-885 CE), and finally Parantaka-I establishing Chola power (907-955 CE). This arrangement reflects the temporal progression of major regional dynasties from the early medieval to the medieval period in Indian history.

📝 Short Notes: Early Medieval Dynasties Chronology

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — A bill of exchange

A Hundi in the post-Harsha period was a negotiable financial instrument used extensively by merchants for trade and credit transactions. It functioned as a bill of exchange, whereby one party would issue a written order to another to pay a specified sum to a third party, either immediately or at a future date. This system facilitated long-distance trade without the need to physically transport large amounts of currency, making it safer and more efficient.

📝 Short Notes: Hundi System in Medieval India

• Definition: Hundi was an indigenous bill of exchange used as a financial instrument for trade and money transfer in medieval India.
• Function: It served as a written order from one merchant (drawer) instructing another (drawee) to pay a specified amount to a third party (payee), facilitating cashless transactions.
• Types: Various types existed including Darshani (payable on sight), Muddati (payable after a specified period), and Shah Jog (payable to a respectable/creditworthy person).
• Usage: Widely used by merchant communities (like Marwaris, Gujaratis) for remittances, trade financing, and credit transactions across long distances.
• Advantages: Eliminated risk of carrying physical cash, reduced transaction costs, and provided credit facilities to traders.
• Historical Continuity: The Hundi system evolved from ancient times and continued well into the colonial period, demonstrating the sophistication of Indian commercial practices.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 only

This question tests knowledge of India's bilateral trade relationships with South Asian countries, specifically Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, and Nepal. Only Statement 2 about textile trade between India and Bangladesh is correct, while statements about consistent trade growth with Sri Lanka and Nepal being the largest trading partner are incorrect.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Indo-Sri Lanka trade has not consistently increased over the last decade; it witnessed significant slumps in 2012-13 and 2016-17, disrupting the steady growth pattern despite overall long-term growth.

✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Textiles and textile articles constitute an important item of bilateral trade between India and Bangladesh, with India exporting approximately $2.25 billion worth of textile products to Bangladesh.

❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Bangladesh, not Nepal, has been India's largest trading partner in South Asia in the last five years, with bilateral trade of over $10 billion in FY 2018-19.

📝 Short Notes: India's Trade Relations with South Asian Neighbors

• India-Bangladesh Textile Trade: A cornerstone of bilateral commerce with India being a major supplier of cotton, yarn, and finished textile products to Bangladesh's garment industry
• SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area): Provides preferential trade framework among SAARC nations, though utilization remains suboptimal
• Trade Imbalance Pattern: India generally maintains trade surplus with most South Asian neighbors except Bhutan (hydropower imports)
• Connectivity Initiatives: BBIN (Bangladesh-Bhutan-India-Nepal) Motor Vehicles Agreement aims to boost regional trade through better connectivity

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

The G20 is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union. Among the given options, only Option 1 lists four countries that are all members of G20: Argentina, Mexico, South Africa, and Turkey. Option 2 includes Malaysia and New Zealand (not G20 members), Option 3 includes Iran and Vietnam (not G20 members), and Option 4 includes Singapore (not a G20 member).

📝 Short Notes: G20 Membership

• Full Name: Group of Twenty (G20)
• Established: 1999 (Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors forum); elevated to Leaders' Summit level in 2008
• Total Members: 19 countries + European Union = 20 members
• Member Countries: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea (Republic of Korea), Turkey, United Kingdom, United States
• Regional Member: European Union (represented by the European Commission and European Central Bank)
• Purpose: Forum for international cooperation on financial and economic issues; represents about 85% of global GDP, 75% of global trade, and two-thirds of world population
• Presidency: Rotates annually among member countries; India held the G20 Presidency in 2023

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only

This question tests knowledge of various international agreements and their subject areas. Only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, while pairs 2 and 4 contain incorrect associations.

✅ Pair 1 – Correct: The Alma-Ata Declaration (1978) was adopted at the International Conference on Primary Health Care in Kazakhstan, establishing primary health care as the key to achieving health for all.

❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: The Hague Convention (1980) deals with the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction, not biological and chemical weapons. Biological and chemical weapons are covered by the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC, 1972) and Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC, 1993).

✅ Pair 3 – Correct: The Talanoa Dialogue is a facilitative process under the UNFCCC to take stock of collective efforts toward climate goals and inform Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement.

❌ Pair 4 – Incorrect: The Under2 Coalition is a global alliance of state and regional governments committed to ambitious climate action to keep global warming well below 2°C, not related to child rights. Child rights are primarily addressed by the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC, 1989).

📝 Short Notes: Key International Agreements

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2

Both statements contain inaccuracies regarding constitutional and statutory provisions. Statement 1 incorrectly assumes that any person eligible to vote (18+ years) can become a minister, while the Constitution requires ministers to meet the qualifications for membership of the State Legislature (25 years for Assembly, 30 for Council). Statement 2 incorrectly describes the disqualification as permanent, whereas it is actually for six years after release from prison.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 164(4) allows a non-member to be a minister for six months, but Article 173 requires the person to be qualified for membership of the State Legislature (minimum age 25 for Assembly, 30 for Council), not just eligible to vote (18 years).

❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Section 8(3) of RPA 1951 disqualifies a person convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years for a period of six years after release, not permanently.

📝 Short Notes: Qualifications and Disqualifications for Ministers and Legislators

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 2 and 3 only

Part IV of the Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSs), which are non-justiciable guidelines for governance. According to Article 37, these principles are not enforceable by any court but are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply them while making laws.

❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: DPSPs are explicitly non-justiciable and cannot be enforced by courts under Article 37.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 37 clearly states that provisions in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 37 mandates that these principles are fundamental in governance and must guide the State in making laws to establish social and economic democracy.

📝 Short Notes: Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)

• Nature: Non-justiciable rights (cannot be enforced by courts) but fundamental in governance (Article 37)
• Purpose: To establish social and economic democracy; guide State policy and law-making
• Classification: Socialistic principles (Articles 38-41), Gandhian principles (Articles 40, 43, 46-48), Liberal-intellectual principles (Articles 44, 45, 49-51)
• Contrast with Fundamental Rights: Part III rights are justiciable and enforceable; DPSPs are non-justiciable but supplementary
• Constitutional Status: Added by the Constituent Assembly to balance individual rights with social welfare goals
• Judicial Interpretation: Supreme Court has held that DPSPs and Fundamental Rights are complementary; both must be harmoniously interpreted (Minerva Mills case)

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — amending the Constitution

The Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the matter of constitutional amendments under Article 368. For any constitutional amendment to be valid, it must be passed by a special majority (majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting) in both Houses of Parliament. In contrast, the Rajya Sabha has limited or no powers in matters of creating All India Services (only recommendatory role), removal of government (only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion), and making cut motions (exclusively a Lok Sabha privilege on money matters).

📝 Short Notes: Powers of Rajya Sabha vs Lok Sabha

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) encompasses a wide range of civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights. Beyond Fundamental Rights, the Indian Constitution reflects UDHR principles in the Preamble (guaranteeing justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity), Directive Principles of State Policy (ensuring socio-economic rights and welfare), and Fundamental Duties (emphasizing individual responsibilities towards the community and society).

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Preamble embodies the ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, which are core principles of the UDHR.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy aim at ensuring social and economic justice, right to work, education, and public assistance, mirroring the economic and social rights enshrined in the UDHR.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Fundamental Duties reflect the individual's responsibilities towards society and the community, consistent with Article 29 of the UDHR which emphasizes duties to the community.

📝 Short Notes: Universal Declaration of Human Rights and Indian Constitution

• UDHR (1948): Adopted by the UN General Assembly on December 10, 1948, it is a milestone document proclaiming the inalienable rights of all human beings.
• Preamble Connection: The Preamble's commitment to justice (social, economic, political), liberty (of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship), equality (of status and opportunity), and fraternity reflects UDHR Articles 1-2 on dignity and equality.
• Directive Principles: Articles 38-51 incorporate socio-economic rights similar to UDHR Articles 22-27, including right to work, education, adequate standard of living, and social security.
• Fundamental Duties: Added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), Article 51A lists 11 duties that complement UDHR Article 29, which states that everyone has duties to the community.
• Holistic Approach: While Fundamental Rights (Part III) directly correspond to civil and political rights in UDHR, the Preamble, DPSPs, and Fundamental Duties together create a comprehensive human rights framework.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 4 only

The Supreme Court's 2018 Aadhaar judgment struck down Section 57 (preventing private entities from using Aadhaar) and upheld Section 7 (allowing Aadhaar for welfare schemes funded by the Consolidated Fund of India). The Court also ruled that metadata storage is limited to six months, not three, and that Aadhaar cannot be made mandatory for services like insurance.

✅ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Aadhaar metadata can be stored for six months, not three months, as per the Supreme Court ruling.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Section 57 was struck down, prohibiting the State from contracting with private corporations for sharing Aadhaar data.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Supreme Court ruled that Aadhaar is not mandatory for insurance products or other financial services.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Section 7 was upheld, making Aadhaar mandatory for benefits funded from the Consolidated Fund of India.

📝 Short Notes: Supreme Court Aadhaar Judgment (2018)

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — limited government

A constitutional government is, by definition, a limited government where the powers of the state are restricted and regulated by a constitution. The constitution establishes a legal framework that defines the scope and limits of governmental authority, ensuring that the government operates within prescribed boundaries. This system prevents arbitrary exercise of power through mechanisms like separation of powers, checks and balances, and protection of fundamental rights, thereby upholding the rule of law.

📝 Short Notes: Constitutional Government

• Definition: A government whose powers are defined and limited by a constitution, operating under the rule of law rather than arbitrary rule.
• Separation of Powers: Division of governmental authority into three distinct branches—Legislature (makes laws), Executive (implements laws), and Judiciary (interprets laws)—to prevent concentration of power.
• Checks and Balances: Each branch has mechanisms to check the powers of the other branches, ensuring no single branch becomes supreme.
• Fundamental Rights: Constitutional guarantees that protect individual liberties against governmental encroachment.
• Rule of Law: The principle that government authority must be exercised in accordance with established laws, and no one is above the law.
• Judicial Review: The power of courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.
• Written or Unwritten: Constitutions may be written (like India, USA) or unwritten/partly written (like UK), but they all limit governmental power.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct as Article 85(1) empowers the President to summon Parliament at such time and place as deemed fit. Statement 3 is correct since neither the Constitution nor the Rules of Procedure mandate a minimum number of sitting days for Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Constitution does not explicitly provide for three sessions; it only requires that the gap between sessions should not exceed six months.

✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 85(1) grants the President the power to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he/she thinks fit.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Constitution does not provide for three sessions; it only mandates that six months shall not intervene between sessions (Article 85). The practice of three sessions (Budget, Monsoon, Winter) is based on convention, not constitutional provision.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: There is no constitutional or procedural requirement for a minimum number of sitting days for Parliament in a year.

📝 Short Notes: Parliamentary Sessions

• Article 85(1): President summons each House of Parliament at such time and place as deemed fit.
• Article 85(2): President may prorogue the Houses from time to time.
• Six-Month Rule: Maximum gap between two sessions cannot exceed six months (Article 85).
• Sessions by Convention: Three sessions are held traditionally—Budget Session (February-May), Monsoon Session (July-August), and Winter Session (November-December).
• No Minimum Days: Constitution does not prescribe minimum sitting days or number of sessions per year.
• Quorum: One-tenth of total members is required for conducting proceedings (Article 100).

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — An agency for the implementation of public policy

Bureaucracy in India refers to the permanent civil service machinery that executes government policies, laws, and programs on a day-to-day basis. While political executives formulate policies, the bureaucracy translates these policies into action through administrative mechanisms. It serves as the implementing arm of the government, ensuring continuity and stability in administration regardless of changes in political leadership.

Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1: Widening parliamentary democracy is primarily the role of political institutions, electoral reforms, and civil society—not bureaucracy.
• Option 2: Strengthening federalism involves constitutional provisions and inter-governmental relations, not the characteristic function of bureaucracy.
• Option 3: While bureaucracy may indirectly contribute to stability and growth, its defining characteristic is policy implementation, not facilitation of political stability.

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 2 — the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

A parliamentary system is characterized by the principle of executive accountability to the legislature. The government (executive) remains in power only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Parliament, and can be removed through mechanisms like a no-confidence motion. This collective responsibility to Parliament is the defining feature that distinguishes parliamentary systems from presidential systems.

❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Representation of all political parties in government is not a requirement of parliamentary systems; governments are typically formed by the party or coalition with majority support.

❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: In a parliamentary system, the government is indirectly elected through representatives in Parliament, not directly by the people; direct election and removal by citizens is a feature of presidential or direct democracy systems.

❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: The ability to remove the government before a fixed term is fundamental to parliamentary democracy; a fixed term without removal provision characterizes presidential systems.

📝 Short Notes: Parliamentary vs Presidential Systems

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 4 — a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.

The Preamble is an integral part of the Indian Constitution as established by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) case. However, it is not directly enforceable in a court of law and cannot be used independently to challenge the validity of any law. The Preamble serves as a key to interpret ambiguous provisions of the Constitution and reflects its underlying philosophy, but it derives its legal effect only when read in conjunction with other substantive provisions of the Constitution.

📝 Short Notes: Legal Status of the Preamble

Detailed Explanation:

Answer: Option 1 — the final goal of a stateless society

Both Gandhism and Marxism, despite their fundamentally different approaches, share the ultimate vision of a stateless society. Gandhism envisions a decentralized, self-governing society based on non-violence, cooperation, and village-level autonomy (often referred to as Ramarajya), where the state becomes unnecessary. Marxism advocates for a classless, communist society where the state eventually "withers away" after the abolition of class distinctions and private property, leaving a self-governing collective society.

❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Gandhism rejects class struggle and advocates for class cooperation and trusteeship, whereas Marxism is fundamentally based on class struggle.

❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: While Marxism calls for the abolition of private property, Gandhism supports the concept of trusteeship where property owners act as trustees of wealth for societal welfare, not complete abolition.

❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Gandhism does not accept economic determinism; it emphasizes moral and spiritual values as the primary drivers of social change, unlike Marxism which views economic factors as the base of social structure.

📝 Short Notes: Gandhism vs Marxism