UPSC Prelims 2016 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2016 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — ASEAN
The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a mega free trade agreement signed in November 2020 involving ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) and its five major trading partners — China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, and New Zealand. ASEAN is at the core of this partnership, making it the largest regional trading bloc covering approximately 30% of global GDP and population. India was initially part of the negotiations but withdrew in 2019 citing concerns over trade deficits and impact on domestic industries. The agreement came into force in January 2022 and aims to reduce tariffs, streamline trade rules, and enhance economic integration across the Asia-Pacific region.
With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’ consider the following statements:
- It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO
- It monitors the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging
- It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 3 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: OPCW is an independent, autonomous international organization based in The Hague, Netherlands, not an organization of the European Union. It implements the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) and has 193 member states globally. While it cooperates with NATO, WHO and other organizations, it is not under their purview or limited to Europe.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: OPCW monitors chemical industries worldwide through routine inspections of declared chemical production facilities to ensure that toxic chemicals are not diverted for weapons purposes. This verification regime prevents the emergence of new chemical weapons.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Under Article X of the Chemical Weapons Convention, OPCW provides assistance and protection to member states facing chemical weapons threats. This includes offering training, protective equipment, detection technology, and emergency response support to enhance national chemical security capabilities.
‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontieres)’, often in the news, is
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — A non-governmental international organization
Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF), commonly known as Doctors Without Borders, is an independent international medical humanitarian NGO founded in 1971 in France. It operates independently of any government, providing medical assistance to populations affected by armed conflict, epidemics, disasters, or exclusion from healthcare, irrespective of race, religion, or political affiliation. MSF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1999 for its pioneering humanitarian work across continents, recognized for its impartiality and commitment to medical ethics.
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With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements:
- It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
- It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) was not an agreement among all Pacific Rim countries. It was signed by only 12 nations: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, Vietnam, and the United States. Many other Pacific Rim countries such as South Korea, Indonesia, Colombia, Thailand, Philippines, Russia, and China were not part of this agreement.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The TPP was a comprehensive free trade agreement aimed at reducing trade barriers, promoting economic integration, and establishing common standards for intellectual property, labor rights, and environmental protection. It was not a strategic alliance for maritime security. After the U.S. withdrawal in 2017, the remaining 11 members formed the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).
The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
Article 249 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to legislate on any matter in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring it necessary or expedient in the national interest. This resolution requires the support of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha. Once passed, Parliament gains the power to make laws on that subject for one year, which can be extended by passing another such resolution. This provision ensures that states' legislative domain is respected while allowing flexibility during national emergencies or matters of urgent national importance.
Consider the following statements:
- The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
- A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The minimum age to be a member of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 25 years. Article 243F of the Constitution prescribes that a person must be at least 21 years old to be eligible for membership of a Panchayat.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: When a Panchayat is reconstituted after premature dissolution, it continues only for the remainder of the original term. Article 243E(4) clearly states that a Panchayat reconstituted after dissolution shall continue only for the unexpired period of the original term, not for a fresh five-year term.
With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
- The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Gram Nyayalaya Act, 2008 grants both civil and criminal jurisdiction to Gram Nyayalayas. Under Section 12, they can hear and decide criminal cases triable by a Magistrate of the First Class. Under Section 13, they have civil jurisdiction over disputes specified in the Schedule to the Act. Therefore, the claim that they can hear only civil cases is wrong.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Section 27 of the Act mandates that the District Court, in consultation with the District Magistrate, shall prepare a panel of Conciliators. These are village-level social workers of integrity with prescribed qualifications and experience. Section 26 requires Gram Nyayalayas to make efforts for conciliation and settlement of civil disputes before formal adjudication, utilizing these local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
- A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha does not lapse on prorogation. Prorogation is merely the end of a parliamentary session, not the dissolution of the House. All pending bills, motions, and other business remain intact and continue in the next session from where they were left.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body (never dissolved), so bills originating or pending there continue regardless of Lok Sabha dissolution. Only bills pending in the Lok Sabha itself lapse upon its dissolution.
Consider the following statements:
- The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
- The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Chief Secretary is appointed by the Governor, not the Chief Minister. Under Article 166 of the Constitution, all executive actions of the State Government are formally taken in the Governor's name. While the Chief Minister recommends the appointment, the formal appointing authority is the Governor. The Chief Secretary is the administrative head of the state civil services and is appointed from IAS officers serving in the state.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: There is no fixed tenure for the Chief Secretary. The position is held at the pleasure of the government, and the officer can be transferred or removed at any time before superannuation. The tenure depends on the discretion of the state government, and frequent changes in Chief Secretaries are common based on administrative and political considerations.
In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?
- Cambay Basin
- Cauvery basin
- Krishna-Godavari Basin
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
Shale gas is natural gas trapped within shale rock formations, and India has identified several sedimentary basins with shale gas potential. The Cambay Basin in western India (Gujarat) is one of India's oldest petroliferous basins with proven shale gas reserves. The Cauvery Basin in southern India (Tamil Nadu-Karnataka) contains organic-rich shale formations suitable for unconventional gas extraction. The Krishna-Godavari Basin on the eastern coast is another major basin where shale gas exploration has been undertaken. All three basins mentioned are part of India's identified shale gas resource regions, making Option 4 the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
- Dibang
- Kameng
- Lohit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Dibang is a major left-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra that flows through the Mishmi Hills in Arunachal Pradesh before joining the main river near Pasighat.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Kameng is a significant right-bank tributary originating in the Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh that flows through Assam and joins the Brahmaputra downstream of Tezpur.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Lohit is an important left-bank tributary originating in eastern Tibet (China) that flows through the Mishmi Hills of Arunachal Pradesh and merges with the Dibang to form the Brahmaputra in the Assam plains.
Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to the sea by a long navigational channel?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Rajasthan
Rajasthan, a landlocked state, has explored the ambitious project of constructing an artificial inland port at Jalore to be connected to the sea (Gulf of Khambhat) through a long navigational channel. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways proposed to support this initiative. The project aims to develop inland navigation facilities in western Rajasthan, enabling transportation of minerals like limestone, gypsum, lignite, and cement products, thereby promoting socio-economic development of the region.
Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Godavari and Krishna
The Godavari-Krishna river linking project was recently undertaken through the Pattiseema Lift Irrigation Scheme in Andhra Pradesh. This project lifts flood water from the Godavari River and pumps it through the Polavaram right canal, which empties into the Krishna River near Vijayawada. This was a significant step in India's ambitious river interlinking program aimed at creating a national water grid for better water resource management and distribution.
Consider the following pairs:
| Terms sometimes seen in the news | Their origin |
|---|---|
| 1. Annex-I Countries | Cartagena Protocol |
| 2. Certified Emissions Reductions | Nagoya Protocol |
| 3. Clean Development Mechanism | Kyoto Protocol |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 3 only
❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Annex-I Countries are listed under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the Kyoto Protocol, not the Cartagena Protocol. The Cartagena Protocol deals with biosafety and the safe handling of living modified organisms.
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Certified Emissions Reductions (CERs) are carbon credits issued under the Clean Development Mechanism of the Kyoto Protocol, not the Nagoya Protocol. The Nagoya Protocol concerns access to genetic resources and benefit-sharing.
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is indeed a mechanism established under the Kyoto Protocol. It allows developed countries to invest in emission reduction projects in developing countries and earn CERs as offsets against their emission reduction commitments.
With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
- It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), also known as Red Sandalwood, is a tree species endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats mountain range of South India, primarily found in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Red Sanders is not found in tropical rainforest areas. It grows in dry deciduous forests and semi-arid regions of the Eastern Ghats, thriving in scrub forests with rocky terrain and low rainfall conditions, which are distinctly different from tropical rainforest ecosystems.
‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — production and use of solar energy by the households/consumers
Net metering is a billing mechanism that allows households and businesses with solar panel installations to send excess electricity generated during the day back to the power grid. In return, they receive credits on their electricity bills which can be used when they draw power from the grid during night-time or cloudy periods when solar production is low. This system promotes decentralized solar energy generation by making rooftop solar installations economically viable for individual consumers, as they effectively use the grid as a virtual battery without needing expensive physical storage systems.
Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to -
- Protection of biodiversity
- Resilience of forest ecosystems
- Poverty reduction
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
The UN-REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) Programme creates financial incentives for developing countries to reduce forest-based emissions while promoting sustainable forest management. All three statements are correct:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: REDD+ protects biodiversity by preventing deforestation and forest degradation, thereby conserving the diverse species of flora and fauna that depend on forest ecosystems.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The programme enhances resilience of forest ecosystems by promoting sustainable forest management practices that help forests better withstand climate change impacts, natural disturbances, and environmental stresses.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: REDD+ contributes to poverty reduction by providing financial incentives and alternative livelihood opportunities to forest-dependent communities, encouraging them to participate in sustainable forest conservation rather than exploitative practices.
Consider the following statements:
- The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
- The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were not proposed by the Club of Rome in 1972. The Club of Rome published 'The Limits to Growth' report in 1972, which discussed environmental sustainability concerns. The concept of SDGs was proposed by Colombia at a preparatory event for the Rio+20 Conference held in Indonesia in July 2011. The SDGs were formally adopted by the UN General Assembly in September 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Sustainable Development Goals are a set of 17 global goals adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015. These goals address global challenges including poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, peace, and justice. The target year for achieving these goals is 2030, which is why they are also referred to as the 2030 Agenda.
With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
- It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Agenda 21 is a comprehensive global action plan for sustainable development adopted at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (Earth Summit) in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. It addresses environmental, social, and economic dimensions of sustainable development across 40 chapters covering issues like poverty, consumption patterns, atmospheric protection, deforestation, desertification, oceans, biodiversity, and waste management.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Agenda 21 originated at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992, not at the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002. The Johannesburg Summit (Rio+10) reviewed progress on Agenda 21 implementation and produced the Johannesburg Plan of Implementation, which reaffirmed and built upon the original commitments.
Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?
- Reduction in weed
- Reduction in soil salinity
- Reduction in soil erosion
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the root zone of plants, keeping the soil surface relatively dry. Since weeds require moist topsoil to germinate and grow, restricting surface water availability significantly reduces weed proliferation compared to flood or sprinkler irrigation methods.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Drip irrigation does not directly reduce soil salinity. In fact, because water is applied in small quantities at specific points, salts can accumulate at the edges of the wetted zone. While proper management practices (like periodic leaching) can help control salinity, drip irrigation itself is not a method for reducing existing soil salinity.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: By releasing water slowly and directly at the root zone, drip irrigation minimizes surface runoff and water flow across the soil surface. This controlled water application prevents the washing away of topsoil, thereby reducing soil erosion and preserving soil structure and fertility.
UPSC Prelims 2016 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Environment & Ecology
23 Qs (23%)Indian Economy
19 Qs (19%)Science & Technology
12 Qs (12%)Current Affairs
10 Qs (10%)International Relations
9 Qs (9%)Modern History
6 Qs (6%)Indian Art & Culture
5 Qs (5%)Indian Geography
5 Qs (5%)Indian Polity
5 Qs (5%)Ancient History
3 Qs (3%)Medieval History
3 Qs (3%)UPSC Prelims 2016 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2016?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2016?
- Environment & Ecology: 23 questions (23%)
- Indian Economy: 19 questions (19%)
- Science & Technology: 12 questions (12%)
- Current Affairs: 10 questions (10%)
- International Relations: 9 questions (9%)
- Modern History: 6 questions (6%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 5 questions (5%)
- Indian Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- Indian Polity: 5 questions (5%)
- Ancient History: 3 questions (3%)
- Medieval History: 3 questions (3%)