UPSC Prelims 2016
Indian Economy Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 19 solved UPSC Prelims 2016 Indian Economy questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:
- IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
- The World Bank participates as an observer in IMFC’s meetings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC) is a key advisory body that discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy and advises the IMF on the direction of its work. It comprises 24 IMF governors (typically finance ministers or central bank governors) and meets twice a year to provide strategic guidance on the international monetary and financial system.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The World Bank participates as an observer in IMFC meetings. This observer status facilitates coordination between the two Bretton Woods institutions on issues of mutual interest such as global economic stability, development finance, and poverty reduction. Other observers include representatives from various international organizations.
With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements:
- It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
- It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) was not an agreement among all Pacific Rim countries. It was signed by only 12 nations: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, Vietnam, and the United States. Many other Pacific Rim countries such as South Korea, Indonesia, Colombia, Thailand, Philippines, Russia, and China were not part of this agreement.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The TPP was a comprehensive free trade agreement aimed at reducing trade barriers, promoting economic integration, and establishing common standards for intellectual property, labor rights, and environmental protection. It was not a strategic alliance for maritime security. After the U.S. withdrawal in 2017, the remaining 11 members formed the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).
What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and 'Gold Monetization Scheme'?
- To bring the idle gold lying with India households into the economy
- To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector
- To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Gold Monetization Scheme (GMS) allows individuals and institutions to deposit their idle physical gold (jewellery, coins, bars) with banks. This gold is melted, refined, and brought into the formal economy, where it can be lent to jewellers and goldsmiths, thereby mobilizing household gold reserves.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Both schemes focus on managing domestic gold demand and supply. They are not designed to attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the gold and jewellery sector. FDI policies operate separately from these domestic gold management initiatives.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Reducing gold imports is a core objective of both schemes. The Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme offers a financial alternative to physical gold, thereby reducing import demand. The GMS increases the availability of recycled domestic gold for jewellers, reducing their need for imported gold. Since gold imports significantly impact India's Current Account Deficit (CAD), these schemes help improve the balance of payments.
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Consider the following statements with reference to ‘IFC Masala Bonds’ -
- The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
- They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is the private sector arm of the World Bank Group, which comprises five institutions working to reduce poverty and promote sustainable development in developing countries.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Masala Bonds are rupee-denominated bonds issued outside India by foreign entities to raise capital in Indian rupees. They serve as a source of debt financing for both public and private sector entities, while the currency risk is borne by the investors rather than the issuer.
‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — International Monetary Fund
The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) is a flagship publication of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), released twice a year in April and October. It assesses the stability of global financial markets, identifies vulnerabilities and emerging risks in the financial system, and provides policy recommendations to enhance financial stability. The report covers topics such as banking sector health, capital flows, sovereign debt, and systemic risks.
Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies
The Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) was launched by the Ministry of Power in November 2015 to address the financial crisis of state power distribution companies (DISCOMs). Under this scheme, state governments took over 75% of DISCOM debt as of September 2015 and issued low-interest state government bonds, reducing interest burden and improving the financial health of DISCOMs. The scheme also focused on operational improvements including reduction of Aggregate Technical & Commercial (AT&C) losses, mandatory supply of cheaper power from state gencos, and energy efficiency measures. Option 2 refers to the Saubhagya Scheme (launched in 2017) for universal household electrification, while options 1 and 3 do not correspond to any specific government scheme matching UDAY's objectives.
Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Andhra Pradesh
India's first National Investment and Manufacturing Zone (NIMZ) was proposed to be set up in Prakasam district of Andhra Pradesh. The state government assured the Centre of the availability of 2,500 acres of contiguous land for this project. The NIMZ concept was introduced under the National Manufacturing Policy to create world-class infrastructure and boost the 'Make in India' initiative by establishing integrated industrial townships with state-of-the-art facilities.
India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — World Bank
The Ease of Doing Business Index was published by the World Bank. This index ranked countries based on the regulatory environment for business operations, measuring factors such as starting a business, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency. The index aimed to encourage countries to implement business-friendly reforms. However, the World Bank discontinued this index in September 2021 following investigations that revealed data irregularities and ethical concerns in the 2018 and 2020 reports.
Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?
- Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
- Loans received from foreign governments.
- Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
The Capital Budget of the Government of India includes all transactions that either create assets or liabilities. It comprises both Capital Receipts (loans received, recovery of loans, etc.) and Capital Expenditure (acquisition of assets, loans granted, etc.).
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, and machinery is Capital Expenditure as it creates physical assets for the country and is long-term in nature, hence included in the capital budget.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Loans received from foreign governments constitute Capital Receipts as they create a liability (repayment obligation) for the government, forming part of the capital budget.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Loans and advances granted to States and Union Territories are Capital Expenditure since they create financial assets for the central government (recoverable with interest), thus included in the capital budget.
With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory for the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?
- List of ingredients including additives
- Nutrition information
- Recommendations, if any made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
- Vegetarian/non-vegetarian
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1, 2 and 4
The Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011 mandate specific information on pre-packaged food items to ensure consumer safety and informed choice.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: List of ingredients including additives must be declared on the label, except for single-ingredient foods. This helps consumers identify what they are consuming.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Nutritional information (per 100 gm/100 ml or per serving) is mandatory. This includes details about energy, protein, carbohydrates, fat, and other nutrients.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: There is no provision in the regulations requiring recommendations by the medical profession about allergic reactions. While allergen information may be included voluntarily, medical recommendations are not mandatory.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: A clear vegetarian/non-vegetarian symbol must be displayed on the package, typically as a green or brown dot inside a square, to help consumers make dietary choices.
In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — WTO affairs
The terms 'amber box,' 'blue box,' and 'green box' are classification categories used in the World Trade Organization's Agreement on Agriculture to categorize domestic agricultural subsidies based on their trade-distorting effects. The Amber Box includes trade-distorting subsidies like price support and input subsidies that are subject to reduction commitments. The Blue Box contains subsidies tied to production-limiting programs that are exempt from reduction commitments. The Green Box covers minimally trade-distorting subsidies such as government services, food security programs, and environmental protection measures that are permitted without limits. These classifications are central to WTO negotiations on agricultural trade liberalization and subsidy disciplines.
Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Renminbi
The Chinese Renminbi (RMB/Yuan) was added to the IMF's Special Drawing Rights (SDR) basket in October 2016, becoming the fifth currency alongside the US Dollar, Euro, Japanese Yen, and British Pound Sterling. This inclusion recognized China's growing role in global trade and finance. The SDR basket is reviewed every five years by the IMF to reflect currencies' relative importance in international transactions. Among the given options, only the Renminbi has been recently proposed and successfully added to the SDR basket, marking a significant milestone in international monetary cooperation.
The term ‘Core Banking Solution’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?
- It is networking of a bank’s branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.
- It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization.
- It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Core Banking Solution (CBS) is a centralized banking system that networks all branches of a bank, enabling customers to operate their accounts and perform banking transactions from any branch on the network, regardless of where the account was originally opened. This provides 'anytime, anywhere' banking within the bank's network.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: CBS is not designed to increase RBI's control over commercial banks. It is an internal banking software platform adopted by individual banks to enhance operational efficiency, streamline processes, and improve customer service delivery.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: CBS refers to the centralized software infrastructure for managing daily banking operations such as deposits, withdrawals, and account management. It has no connection with procedures for bank takeovers or resolution of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs).
With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:
- It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
- It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
- It monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 2 and 3 only
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is not an organ of NITI Aayog. It is an apex-level independent body constituted under the Ministry of Finance to strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The FSDC is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. The Council includes heads of financial sector regulators (RBI, SEBI, IRDA, PFRDA), Finance Secretary, and other senior officials.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The FSDC monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates. It assesses and addresses systemic risks to financial stability and coordinates among various financial sector regulators.
The establishment of “Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote Financial Inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
- Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
- Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
- Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 3 only
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks under RBI guidelines. This provision enables entities with extensive reach and distribution networks to promote financial inclusion among unbanked populations.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Payment Banks are permitted to issue only debit cards and ATM cards linked to their deposit accounts. They cannot issue credit cards as they are not authorized to undertake any lending activities, which is a prerequisite for credit card issuance.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Payment Banks are explicitly prohibited from undertaking lending activities under RBI regulations. They can only accept deposits (up to ₹2 lakh per customer) and provide payment/remittance services, thereby focusing solely on facilitating transactions and savings rather than credit creation.
What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?
- These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances
- These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit & interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: MCLR framework mandates banks to adopt a standardized, transparent methodology for determining lending rates. Banks must disclose their MCLR calculation components (marginal cost of funds, operating costs, tenor premium, and negative carry) publicly, improving transparency compared to the earlier Base Rate system.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: MCLR ensures fairness by linking lending rates to actual marginal cost of funds, enabling faster transmission of policy rate changes to borrowers. This balances borrower interests (lower rates when RBI cuts rates) with bank viability (covering costs and maintaining reasonable margins), thereby ensuring both availability of credit and fair pricing.
There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?
- Reducing revenue expenditure
- Introducing new welfare schemes
- Rationalizing subsidies
- Reducing import duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 and 3 only
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Reducing revenue expenditure (salaries, interest payments, administrative costs) directly lowers total government spending without affecting asset creation, thereby reducing the budget deficit.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Introducing new welfare schemes increases government expenditure, which widens the budget deficit rather than reducing it.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Rationalizing subsidies through better targeting (DBT, eliminating leakages) reduces wasteful expenditure while maintaining benefits for intended beneficiaries, thus helping to narrow the deficit.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Reducing import duty decreases tax revenue for the government, which increases the deficit when expenditure remains constant.
Which of the following best describes the term “import cover”, sometimes seen in the news?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country's international reserves
Import cover is a key indicator of external sector stability that measures how many months of imports a nation can finance using its current foreign exchange reserves. It is calculated by dividing total foreign exchange reserves by average monthly imports. For example, if a country has $300 billion in reserves and monthly imports of $25 billion, its import cover is 12 months. A higher import cover indicates stronger ability to withstand balance of payments crises or sudden capital outflows. The Reserve Bank of India typically aims to maintain adequate import cover (generally 9-12 months) to ensure economic security. Option 1 describes import intensity relative to GDP, Option 2 refers to absolute import value, and Option 3 describes the export-import ratio, none of which capture the reserves-to-imports relationship that defines import cover.
The term ‘Base Erosion and profit shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies
Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) refers to tax planning strategies used by multinational companies to artificially shift profits from higher-tax jurisdictions to lower-tax jurisdictions, thereby eroding the tax base of countries where actual economic activity occurs. The OECD/G20 BEPS Project aims to curb such tax avoidance practices through international cooperation and common standards. Governments worldwide have adopted BEPS measures to prevent multinationals from exploiting gaps and mismatches in tax rules across different countries, ensuring fair taxation where value is created.
UPSC Prelims 2016 - Indian Economy Chapter-wise Distribution
International Trade and Economic Organizations
6 Qs (31.6%)Public Finance & Fiscal Policy
5 Qs (26.3%)Money, Banking & Financial System
3 Qs (15.8%)External Sector
2 Qs (10.5%)Government Schemes & Social Sector
2 Qs (10.5%)Infrastructure
1 Qs (5.3%)UPSC Prelims 2016 - Indian Economy Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Economy questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2016?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Economy in UPSC Prelims 2016?
- International Trade and Economic Organizations: 6 questions (31.6%)
- Public Finance & Fiscal Policy: 5 questions (26.3%)
- Money, Banking & Financial System: 3 questions (15.8%)
- External Sector: 2 questions (10.5%)
- Government Schemes & Social Sector: 2 questions (10.5%)
- Infrastructure: 1 questions (5.3%)