UPSC Prelims 2015
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 14 solved UPSC Prelims 2015 Indian Polity questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the:
Detailed Explanation:
The provision "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is enshrined in Article 51A(c) of the Constitution.
This is one of the 11 Fundamental Duties added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
Detailed Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV, Articles 36-51) embody the ideal of a Welfare State by laying down socio-economic goals for the government to achieve, such as securing social order for public welfare (Article 38), ensuring adequate means of livelihood (Article 39), and promoting public health and nutrition (Article 47).
While the Preamble declares India as a socialist republic and Fundamental Rights protect individual freedoms, it is the DPSP that specifically provides the comprehensive framework and guidelines for establishing a welfare state through positive state action.
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because:
Detailed Explanation:
Parliamentary System is characterized by the fusion of executive and legislature, where the executive (Council of Ministers) is drawn from and remains collectively responsible to the legislature.
Article 75(3) mandates that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha — meaning the government must maintain the confidence of the lower house to remain in power. This accountability to the legislature is the defining feature that distinguishes a Parliamentary system from a Presidential system (where the executive is independent of legislative confidence).
Direct election of Lok Sabha, power to amend Constitution, and permanent nature of Rajya Sabha are features found in various democratic systems and do not define the Parliamentary character of government.
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The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to -
Detailed Explanation:
Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule both provide special provisions for the administration and protection of Scheduled Tribes in India.
Fifth Schedule applies to Scheduled Areas in states (except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram) and provides for Tribes Advisory Councils (TACs) to advise Governors on tribal welfare, land rights, and customary practices.
Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram and creates Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with legislative and administrative powers to preserve tribal customs, land ownership, and self-governance.
Who/Which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India is the Custodian of the Constitution, safeguarding Fundamental Rights under Article 32, exercising Judicial Review under Article 13, and ensuring all laws conform to constitutional provisions.
The Court settles Centre-State disputes (Article 131), declares binding law (Article 141), enforces decrees (Article 142), and advises the President (Article 143), making it the ultimate guardian of constitutional supremacy.
Consider the following statements:
- The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 109, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill; it can only return it with recommendations within 14 days, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on Demands for Grants as per Article 113; this is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Rajya Sabha can discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) under Article 112, though it cannot vote on the demands for grants.
The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
- People’s participation in the development
- Political accountability
- Democratic decentralization
- Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: People's participation in development is a fundamental objective of the Panchayati Raj system, enabling grassroots involvement in local planning and development as envisaged in Article 40 and operationalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While political accountability emerges as a consequence, it is not among the fundamental objectives; the primary aim is to create institutions for self-governance, not to establish accountability mechanisms per se.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Democratic decentralization is the core principle of Panchayati Raj, transferring power from centralized structures to local self-government institutions to ensure governance at the grassroots level.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Financial mobilization is an operational aspect and a means to achieve development goals, but not a fundamental object of the system; the focus is on democratic participation and decentralization.
With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements.
- The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
- No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
- All the disbursements made from Public Account also need Authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Department of Economic Affairs (under Ministry of Finance), not the Department of Revenue, prepares the Union Budget presented to Parliament.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 114 of the Constitution mandates that no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without parliamentary authorization through the Appropriation Act.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Public Account transactions (provident funds, judicial deposits, remittances) are operated by executive action and do not require parliamentary appropriation, functioning like banking transactions.
Consider the following statements:
- The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The executive power of the Union is vested in the President of India under Article 53, not in the Prime Minister. The President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: There is no constitutional position called the Civil Services Board at the Union level, and the Prime Minister is not its ex officio Chairman. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the civil services.
Consider the following statements:
- The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular state.
- The Governor of a state nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Legislative Council cannot exceed one-third of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly, as per Article 171(1). The minimum strength is 40 members.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council are elected by the Council members themselves, not nominated by the Governor, ensuring legislative independence from executive control.
Consider the following Statements regarding the DPSP/ Directive Principles of State Policy:
- The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
- The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given below are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The DPSP (Part IV, Articles 36-51) spell out the framework for socio-economic democracy, encompassing social justice, economic justice, and political justice that the State should strive to achieve.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 37 explicitly states that DPSPs are not enforceable by any court (non-justiciable), though they remain fundamental in governance and guide law-making and policy formulation.
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by:
Detailed Explanation:
Article 108 of the Constitution provides that when a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both Houses, it must be passed by a simple majority of members present and voting.
The joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, and the combined vote of both Houses determines the outcome, making it easier for the Lok Sabha to prevail due to its larger numerical strength.
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
Detailed Explanation:
NITI Aayog was established on 1 January 2015 to replace the Planning Commission (established in 1950).
The shift was made to move from a centralized planning model to a more cooperative federalism approach, making policy-making more agile, responsive, and suited to India's economic reforms.
With Reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 per cent to 42 per cent
- It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The 14th Finance Commission (chaired by Dr. Y.V. Reddy) increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32% to 42%, a historic jump aimed at enhancing fiscal federalism.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Commission moved away from recommending sector-specific grants to preserve state fiscal autonomy. It provided only grants for local bodies and disaster management, avoiding tied grants that restrict states' spending flexibility.
UPSC Prelims 2015 - Indian Polity Chapter-wise Distribution
Parliament
3 Qs (21.4%)Directive Principles of State Policy
2 Qs (14.3%)Local Government
1 Qs (7.1%)Supreme Court
1 Qs (7.1%)Special Constitutional Provisions
1 Qs (7.1%)Salient Features of the Constitution
1 Qs (7.1%)Fundamental Duties
1 Qs (7.1%)Constitutional Bodies
1 Qs (7.1%)Non-Constitutional Bodies
1 Qs (7.1%)State Government
1 Qs (7.1%)Union Executive
1 Qs (7.1%)UPSC Prelims 2015 - Indian Polity Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Polity questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2015?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Polity in UPSC Prelims 2015?
- Parliament: 3 questions (21.4%)
- Directive Principles of State Policy: 2 questions (14.3%)
- Local Government: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Supreme Court: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Special Constitutional Provisions: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Salient Features of the Constitution: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Fundamental Duties: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Constitutional Bodies: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Non-Constitutional Bodies: 1 questions (7.1%)
- State Government: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Union Executive: 1 questions (7.1%)