UPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2014 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements :
- It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
- It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
- It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: BNHS is an independent, non-governmental organization founded in 1883, not an autonomous body under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: BNHS Mission is conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity, through action-based research, education, and public awareness.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: BNHS organizes and conducts nature trails, camps, and field trips for the general public to promote wildlife awareness and conservation.
With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar Convention.
- It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Wetlands International is an independent, not-for-profit, global organisation, not an intergovernmental body. It is supported by government and NGO membership from around the world, but is not formed by Ramsar Convention signatories.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Wetlands International works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge and uses practical experience to advocate for better policies for wetlands conservation and restoration.
What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?
- Prevention of soil runoff
- Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
- Rainwater harvesting and recharge of the groundwater table
- Regeneration of natural vegetation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: IWDP focuses on soil and moisture conservation, implementing measures like contour bunding, terracing, and vegetative barriers that effectively prevent soil runoff and erosion.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: IWDP does not involve interlinking of rivers; it works at the watershed/micro-watershed level for localized water management. River interlinking is part of the separate National River Linking Project.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: IWDP promotes rainwater harvesting structures like farm ponds, percolation tanks, check dams, and nala bunds that enhance groundwater recharge and increase the water table.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: IWDP emphasizes afforestation, pasture development, and restoration of degraded lands, leading to regeneration of natural vegetation and improved ecological balance.
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With reference to the Neem tree, consider the following statements:
- Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
- Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
- Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Neem oil contains azadirachtin, a natural compound that effectively controls the proliferation of insects and mites by disrupting their growth and feeding patterns, making it a widely used biopesticide.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While neem seeds have been explored for various applications, they are not commercially used for manufacturing biofuels or hospital detergents. Hospital detergents require regulated chemical formulations with specific disinfectant properties.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Neem oil has significant applications in the pharmaceutical industry, including anti-bacterial, anti-fungal, anti-inflammatory, and anti-diabetic properties, and is used in various medicinal formulations and traditional Ayurvedic preparations.
Consider the following statements:
- Maize can be used for the production of starch.
- Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
- Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Maize (corn) is a major source of cornstarch, widely used as a thickening agent in food products, bioplastics, and pharmaceutical industries.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Corn oil extracted from maize germ serves as an effective feedstock for biodiesel production, offering a renewable fuel alternative.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Maize is fermented to produce alcoholic beverages including bourbon whiskey, corn beer, and ethanol for fuel and drinks.
In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?
- Terrace cultivation
- Deforestation
- Tropical climate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Terrace cultivation is a soil conservation method that prevents erosion by creating leveled steps on slopes to reduce water runoff and trap soil.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Deforestation removes tree cover and root systems that bind soil, leaving it exposed to rain and wind erosion, making it a major cause of soil erosion in India.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Tropical climate with heavy rainfall is a natural factor but not inherently problematic; erosion occurs primarily due to human activities like deforestation and poor land management, not the climate itself.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’:
- It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
- It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
- It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Earth Hour is an initiative of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF), not UNEP or UNESCO.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Participants switch off non-essential lights for one hour on the last Saturday of March every year.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The movement aims to raise awareness about climate change, energy conservation, and the need to save the planet.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?
Detailed Explanation:
A food chain represents the linear flow of energy from producers to consumers in an ecosystem.
Diatoms are microscopic algae and act as primary producers through photosynthesis, forming the base of aquatic food chains.
Crustaceans (like krill, copepods) are primary consumers that feed on diatoms and other phytoplankton.
Herrings are secondary consumers (small fish) that feed on crustaceans and zooplankton.
The correct energy flow follows: Diatoms → Crustaceans → Herrings.
Consider the following international agreements:
- The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
- The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
- The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?
Detailed Explanation:
International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) aims at conservation and sustainable use of plant genetic resources which are essential components of agricultural biodiversity.
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) addresses land degradation in drylands, which leads to habitat loss and biodiversity decline; combating desertification directly protects terrestrial biodiversity.
World Heritage Convention (WHC) protects natural heritage sites of outstanding universal value, which often harbor significant biodiversity hotspots and endemic species.
All three conventions have direct or indirect bearing on biodiversity conservation.
The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of
Detailed Explanation:
Biosphere reserves are specifically designed to conserve biodiversity while integrating traditional human life and sustainable development.
They operate through a three-zone system: Core Zone (strict protection), Buffer Zone (limited research/education), and Transition Zone (human settlements, agriculture, and economic activities permitted).
National parks and wildlife sanctuaries prohibit or severely restrict human habitation, while botanical gardens serve only ex-situ conservation without human integration.
Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India?
- Oxides of sulphur
- Oxides of nitrogen
- Carbon monoxide
- Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Steel industry uses coal and coke containing sulphur; combustion and sintering processes release oxides of sulphur (SOx).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: High-temperature operations in blast furnaces cause atmospheric nitrogen to react with oxygen, forming oxides of nitrogen (NOx).
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Carbon monoxide (CO) is generated during reduction of iron ore and through incomplete combustion of carbon-based fuels.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released from chemical reduction of iron ore (coke reacting with ore) and combustion of fossil fuels.
Programme/ Project Ministry
- Drought-Prone Area Programme: Ministry of Agriculture
- Desert Development Programme: Ministry of Environment and Forests
- National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas: Ministry of Rural Development
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP) is implemented by Ministry of Rural Development, not Ministry of Agriculture. It aims to mitigate adverse effects of drought on production of crops and livestock and productivity of land, water and human resources.
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Desert Development Programme (DDP) is implemented by Ministry of Rural Development, not Ministry of Environment and Forests. It aims to control desertification and restore ecological balance in desert areas.
❌ Pair 3 – Incorrect: National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA) is implemented by Ministry of Agriculture (now under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana), not Ministry of Rural Development.
The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is
Detailed Explanation:
The 12th Five-Year Plan (2012-2017) had the theme "Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth".
It aimed for 8% GDP growth, 4% growth in agriculture, 10% growth in manufacturing, and focused on reducing regional disparities and poverty through inclusive development.
In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Guar gum, extracted from the endosperm of guar seeds, is used as a thickening and gelling agent in hydraulic fracturing (fracking) for shale gas extraction. Its viscosifying properties help carry proppants into fractures.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Guar seed oil is not used in biodegradable plastics manufacture; guar gum finds industrial applications but not in this domain.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Guar leaves do not possess antihistamine properties; they are primarily used as animal feed and vegetables.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Guar is not a source of biodiesel; its primary economic value lies in guar gum production, not oil extraction for fuel.
Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?
- The Finance Commission
- The National Development Council
- The Union Ministry of Rural Development
- The Union Ministry of Urban Development
- The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The National Development Council (NDC) was the apex body for approving and reviewing Five-Year Plans in India, directly associated with national planning.
✅ Statement 5 – Correct: Parliament has constitutional authority to approve Five-Year Plans and budgetary allocations for planned development.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Finance Commission deals with tax devolution and grants-in-aid between Centre and States, not with formulating development plans.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Union Ministry of Rural Development implements sectoral schemes like MGNREGA and PMAY-G, not overall national planning.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Union Ministry of Urban Development (now Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs) executes urban-specific programs, not macro-level planning.
With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
- Defence expenditure
- Interest payments
- Salaries and pensions
- Subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
All four items listed were covered under Non-Plan Expenditure before the classification was abolished in 2017-18.
Non-Plan Expenditure included: Defence expenditure (capital), Interest payments (revenue), Salaries and pensions (revenue), and Subsidies (revenue). These were committed/obligatory expenditures not routed through Planning Commission.
In the context of Indian economy which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?
- To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
- To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
- To prevent commercial banks from making excessive profits
- To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Statutory Reserve Requirements (CRR and SLR) are the primary quantitative tools used by the RBI to control the credit-creation capacity and advances that commercial banks can make, thereby regulating money supply in the economy.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While reserves help liquidity management, the safety of deposits is ensured by DICGC (Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation) and Basel norms (Capital Adequacy Requirements), not by statutory reserves as a primary purpose.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Statutory reserves are monetary policy instruments designed to control liquidity and credit, not to regulate or prevent bank profits.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: CRR is maintained with the RBI and SLR in liquid assets like government securities; banks maintain separate vault cash for daily operational needs, which is distinct from statutory requirements.
With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?
- Balance of trade
- Foreign assets
- Balance of invisibles
- Special Drawing Right
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Current Account of the Balance of Payments (BoP) comprises two main components: Balance of Trade (visible items - exports and imports of goods) and Balance of Invisibles (invisible items - services, income, and current transfers).
Foreign Assets are part of the Capital Account/Financial Account, representing investment flows and changes in ownership of international assets. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) are IMF reserve assets recorded under Reserve Assets in the BoP, not in the Current Account.
If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will
Detailed Explanation:
When interest rates decrease, the cost of borrowing falls, making loans cheaper for businesses and entrepreneurs.
This encourages firms to take credit for capital investment in machinery, equipment, infrastructure, and expansion projects, thereby increasing investment expenditure in the economy.
Lower interest rates also reduce returns on savings (making saving less attractive) and stimulate consumption through cheaper EMIs, but the most direct and significant impact is on investment decisions by businesses.
In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation?
- There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
- There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
- There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: India has the National Seeds Policy (2002) which provides a framework for seed certification, quality assurance, and encourages private sector participation.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Private sector seed companies like Mahyco, Syngenta, and Nunhems actively participate in supplying quality seeds of vegetables and horticultural crops, especially hybrid varieties.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: There exists a demand-supply gap for quality certified seeds in low-value, high-volume crops (such as pulses, coarse cereals, and oilseeds) due to lower profitability and limited private sector investment in their seed production.
UPSC Prelims 2014 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Environment & Ecology
28 Qs (28%)Indian Economy
14 Qs (14%)Indian Art & Culture
14 Qs (14%)Indian Polity
10 Qs (10%)Science & Technology
9 Qs (9%)Indian Geography
7 Qs (7%)World Geography
5 Qs (5%)Modern History
5 Qs (5%)International Relations
4 Qs (4%)Medieval History
2 Qs (2%)Ancient History
1 Qs (1%)Current Affairs
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2014?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2014?
- Environment & Ecology: 28 questions (28%)
- Indian Economy: 14 questions (14%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 14 questions (14%)
- Indian Polity: 10 questions (10%)
- Science & Technology: 9 questions (9%)
- Indian Geography: 7 questions (7%)
- World Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- Modern History: 5 questions (5%)
- International Relations: 4 questions (4%)
- Medieval History: 2 questions (2%)
- Ancient History: 1 questions (1%)
- Current Affairs: 1 questions (1%)