UPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2014 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from
Detailed Explanation:
The Arab Spring uprisings originally started in Tunisia in December 2010 when street vendor Mohamed Bouazizi set himself on fire in protest against police harassment and corruption.
This sparked widespread protests demanding political reforms, leading to the overthrow of President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali in January 2011, which then inspired similar uprisings across Egypt, Libya, Syria, Yemen and other Arab nations.
Consider the following countries:
- Denmark
- Japan
- Russian Federation
- United Kingdom
- United States of America
Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Denmark (1) – Correct: Member state of the Arctic Council representing the Kingdom of Denmark, which includes Greenland and the Faroe Islands.
❌ Japan (2) – Incorrect: Holds observer status in the Arctic Council, not a member state.
✅ Russian Federation (3) – Correct: Member state as one of the eight nations with sovereignty over lands within the Arctic Circle.
❌ United Kingdom (4) – Incorrect: Holds observer status, not a member state of the Arctic Council.
✅ United States (5) – Correct: Member state due to its Alaskan territory within the Arctic region.
The Arctic Council has eight member states: Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russian Federation, Sweden, and United States.
Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which -
- Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
- Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: A constitutional government protects individual liberty from state overreach, not restricts it in favour of state authority.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The essence of constitutional government is limited government where the authority of the state is restricted by the constitution to safeguard individual liberty and fundamental rights.
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Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
Detailed Explanation:
Committee on Estimates is the largest parliamentary committee with 30 members, all elected annually from the Lok Sabha only.
Committee on Public Accounts and Committee on Public Undertakings have 22 members each (15 from Lok Sabha + 7 from Rajya Sabha), while Committee on Petitions has 15 members in Lok Sabha.
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
- There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
- A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the No-Confidence Motion; it is provided under Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: A No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha (not in Rajya Sabha) as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha under Article 75(3). Requires support of at least 50 members to be admitted.
Consider the following statements:
- The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
- All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 77(3) empowers the President to make rules for transaction of Government business and allocation among Ministers. These are known as the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 77(1) states all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers but executive authority is formally vested in the President.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
Detailed Explanation:
Article 131 confers original jurisdiction on the Supreme Court to decide disputes between the Centre and States or between States inter se.
Original jurisdiction means cases can be directly filed in the Supreme Court without going through lower courts, making it the court of first instance for such federal disputes.
Which of the following are discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
- Sending a report to the President of India for imposing President's rule
- Appointing the Ministers
- Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
- Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 356, the Governor has discretionary power to send a report to the President recommending President's Rule if constitutional machinery in the state has failed.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Governor appoints Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister under Article 164; this is not a discretionary power but a constitutional obligation.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Under Article 200, the Governor has discretionary power to reserve bills passed by the State Legislature for the President's consideration, especially bills affecting High Court powers or repugnant to Central laws.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Under Article 166, rules for conducting State Government business are made by the Governor on the advice of the Council of Ministers, not at discretion.
In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
Detailed Explanation:
Promotion of international peace and security is mandated under Article 51 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
The State shall endeavour to: promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
Detailed Explanation:
Article 124(1) of the Constitution states that the Supreme Court shall consist of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, not more than 33 other Judges.
The power to increase the number of Supreme Court judges is vested in Parliament through legislation, not in the President, Chief Justice, or Law Commission.
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
Detailed Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution contains provisions regarding anti-defection.
Added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, it provides for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection by voluntarily giving up party membership or disobeying party whip (except in cases like splits and mergers as per rules).
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
- Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
- Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Cabinet Secretariat prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings and circulates relevant papers to ensure smooth functioning of the Cabinet.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: It provides secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees (like CCEA, CCS, ACC) and coordinates implementation of Cabinet decisions across ministries.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Allocation of financial resources is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance through the Budget Division, not the Cabinet Secretariat.
Consider the following pairs
- Dampa Tiger Reserve: Mizoram
- Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary: Sikkim
- Saramati Peak: Nagaland
Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Dampa Tiger Reserve is located in Mizoram, notified as a wildlife sanctuary in 1985 and declared a Tiger Reserve in 1994. It is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram.
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Tripura, not Sikkim. It was established in 1988 and is known for bison, sambar, and elephants.
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Saramati Peak (3,826 m) is the highest peak in Nagaland, located on the Nagaland-Myanmar border in the Tuensang district.
Consider these pairs -
- Cardamom Hills -- Coromandel Coast
- Kaimur Hills -- Konkan Coast
- Mahadeo Hills -- Central India
- Mikir Hills -- North-East India
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Cardamom Hills are located in the southern Western Ghats (Kerala-Tamil Nadu border), not on the Coromandel Coast (eastern coast along Bay of Bengal).
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Kaimur Hills are situated in central India (bordering Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar), far from the Konkan Coast (western coast along Arabian Sea).
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Mahadeo Hills are part of the Satpura Range in central India, primarily in Madhya Pradesh.
✅ Pair 4 – Correct: Mikir Hills (also known as Karbi Anglong Hills) are located in Assam, North-East India.
Consider the following rivers:
- Barak
- Lohit
- Subansiri
Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
Detailed Explanation:
Lohit River: Originates in the Mishmi Hills of eastern Arunachal Pradesh and flows through Anjaw and Lohit districts before joining the Brahmaputra.
Subansiri River: A major tributary of Brahmaputra, flows through Upper Subansiri and Lower Subansiri districts of Arunachal Pradesh before entering Assam.
Barak River: Originates in the Manipur Hills and flows through Manipur, Mizoram, and Assam only; does not flow through Arunachal Pradesh.
Consider the following pairs :
| National Highway | Cities Connected |
|---|---|
| 1. NH 4 | Chennai and Hyderabad |
| 2. NH 6 | Mumbai and Kolkata |
| 3. NH 15 | Ahmedabad and Jodhpur |
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: NH 4 (now renumbered as NH 48 in 2010) connected Mumbai-Pune-Bangalore-Chennai, not Chennai-Hyderabad. Current NH 4 is the Andaman Trunk Road (230.7 km) in Andaman Islands.
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: NH 6 runs from Jorabat (Meghalaya) to Seling (Mizoram) through northeastern states, not Mumbai-Kolkata. The old Mumbai-Kolkata highway was renumbered.
❌ Pair 3 – Incorrect: NH 15 connects Baihata (Assam) to Wakro (Arunachal Pradesh), not Ahmedabad-Jodhpur.
| Region | Well known for the production of |
|---|---|
| 1. Kinnaur (Himachal) | Areca nut |
| 2. Mewat (Haryana) | Mango |
| 3. Coromandel (TN-Andhra) | Soya bean |
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Kinnaur (Himachal Pradesh) is renowned for apple cultivation and dry fruits, not areca nut. Areca nut (betel nut) is predominantly grown in Karnataka, Kerala, Assam, and West Bengal.
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Mewat (Haryana) is known for wheat and mustard cultivation, not mango. Major mango-producing regions include Uttar Pradesh (Malihabad), Andhra Pradesh (Banganapalle), Bihar (Darbhanga), and Karnataka (Alphonso in coastal areas).
❌ Pair 3 – Incorrect: Coromandel Coast (Tamil Nadu-Andhra Pradesh) is famous for paddy/rice cultivation and deltaic agriculture, not soya bean. Soya bean is primarily grown in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.
Conclusion: None of the pairs is correctly matched.
Turkey is located between
Detailed Explanation:
Turkey is a transcontinental country strategically located between the Black Sea to the north and the Mediterranean Sea to the south.
It also borders the Aegean Sea to the west, while the Caspian Sea lies far to the east (beyond the Caucasus), the Gulf of Suez and Gulf of Aqaba are part of Egypt/Israel region, and the Dead Sea is located between Israel and Jordan.
Which one of the following pairs of islands are separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
Detailed Explanation:
The Ten Degree Channel is located at approximately 10°N latitude in the Bay of Bengal and separates Little Andaman Island (southernmost of Andaman group) from Car Nicobar Island (northernmost of Nicobar group).
Other channels: Great Channel (separates Nicobar from Sumatra), Eight Degree Channel (separates Minicoy from Maldives), Nine Degree Channel (separates Minicoy from rest of Lakshadweep), and Sunda Strait (separates Sumatra from Java).
With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coal bed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following statements:
- Coal bed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
- In India abundant coal bed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Coal bed methane is pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, but shale gas is primarily methane (not propane and butane only) extracted from fine-grained sedimentary shale rocks.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: India has abundant coal bed methane sources in regions like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal and also has identified shale gas sources in Cambay, Krishna-Godavari, and Cauvery basins, though exploitation remains nascent.
UPSC Prelims 2014 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Environment & Ecology
28 Qs (28%)Indian Economy
14 Qs (14%)Indian Art & Culture
14 Qs (14%)Indian Polity
10 Qs (10%)Science & Technology
9 Qs (9%)Indian Geography
7 Qs (7%)World Geography
5 Qs (5%)Modern History
5 Qs (5%)International Relations
4 Qs (4%)Medieval History
2 Qs (2%)Ancient History
1 Qs (1%)Current Affairs
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2014?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2014?
- Environment & Ecology: 28 questions (28%)
- Indian Economy: 14 questions (14%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 14 questions (14%)
- Indian Polity: 10 questions (10%)
- Science & Technology: 9 questions (9%)
- Indian Geography: 7 questions (7%)
- World Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- Modern History: 5 questions (5%)
- International Relations: 4 questions (4%)
- Medieval History: 2 questions (2%)
- Ancient History: 1 questions (1%)
- Current Affairs: 1 questions (1%)