UPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2014 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?
- It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
- It enables the beneficiaries in rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Business Correspondents (Bank Saathi) enable beneficiaries to withdraw government subsidies and social security benefits (DBT) directly in their villages through Electronic Benefit Transfer (EBT), eliminating the need to travel to distant bank branches.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: BCs facilitate basic banking services in branchless areas including deposits, withdrawals, remittances, and balance enquiry, promoting financial inclusion in rural and remote locations where setting up full-fledged branches is not viable.
Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of the other three?
Detailed Explanation:
Crab belongs to class Crustacea, while Mite, Scorpion, and Spider all belong to class Arachnida.
Both are arthropods, but Crustaceans typically have two pairs of antennae and gills, whereas Arachnids have no antennae and possess eight legs.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?
- Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
- Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
- Vegetative propagation can be practised most of the year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Vegetative propagation is an asexual reproduction method where new plants grow from vegetative parts (roots, stems, leaves) without gamete fusion, producing genetically identical offspring—a clonal population.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Vegetative propagation does not eliminate viruses; instead, it propagates them. If the parent plant is virus-infected, the pathogen transmits to offspring through infected tissues.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Unlike sexual reproduction dependent on seasonal flowering cycles, vegetative propagation can be practiced year-round as it relies on mature vegetative organs available regardless of reproductive phase.
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Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?
| Spacecraft | Purpose |
|---|---|
| 1. Cassini-Huygens | Orbiting Venus and transmitting data to the Earth |
| 2. Messenger | Mapping and investigating the Mercury |
| 3. Voyager 1 and 2 | Exploring the outer solar system |
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Cassini-Huygens was a mission to study Saturn and its moons (not Venus). The Huygens probe landed on Titan (Saturn's largest moon) in 2005.
✅ Pair 2 – Correct: MESSENGER (MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging) orbited Mercury from 2011 to 2015, mapping and studying its surface, composition, and magnetic field.
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Voyager 1 and 2 were launched by NASA in 1977 to explore the outer solar system, providing data on Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune before entering interstellar space.
Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?
- Crystallization of sodium chloride
- Melting of ice
- Souring of milk
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Crystallization of sodium chloride is a physical change; NaCl changes from dissolved to solid state without altering its chemical composition.
✅ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Melting of ice is a physical change; H₂O molecules transition from solid to liquid state while maintaining the same chemical structure.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Souring of milk is a chemical change; bacteria convert lactose into lactic acid, creating new substances and irreversibly altering the chemical composition.
In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?
- Iris scanning
- Retinal scanning
- Voice recognition
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Iris scanning captures unique patterns in the colored ring around the pupil, which remain stable throughout life and are highly distinctive for each individual.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Retinal scanning maps the unique pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye, providing one of the most accurate biometric identification methods.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Voice recognition analyzes unique vocal characteristics including pitch, tone, cadence, and physical features of the vocal tract for identification.
Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
Detailed Explanation:
Photosynthesis converts light energy (free energy) from the sun into chemical energy (potential energy) and stores it in the bonds of glucose molecules.
The process uses carbon dioxide and water as raw materials and releases oxygen as a byproduct, while the stored energy in glucose can later be used by plants and other organisms.
Consider the following pairs :
| Vitamin | Deficiency disease |
|---|---|
| 1. Vitamin C | Scurvy |
| 2. Vitamin D | Rickets |
| 3. Vitamin E | Night blindness |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums, weakness, and poor wound healing.
✅ Pair 2 – Correct: Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets in children, leading to soft and weak bones.
❌ Pair 3 – Incorrect: Vitamin E deficiency causes neurological problems and muscle weakness, not Night blindness. Night blindness is caused by Vitamin A deficiency.
Consider the following techniques/phenomena:
- Budding and grafting in fruit plants
- Cytoplasmic male sterility
- Gene silencing
Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Budding and grafting are traditional vegetative propagation techniques that multiply plants asexually without altering DNA; no recombinant DNA technology is used, so they do not create transgenic crops.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Cytoplasmic male sterility (CMS) can be manipulated through genetic engineering to introduce or transfer sterility genes into crops, creating transgenic lines for hybrid seed production.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Gene silencing (RNA interference/RNAi) uses engineered genetic constructs to suppress specific gene expression in plants, making it a key technique for developing transgenic crops with desired traits.
Consider the following diseases
- Diphtheria
- Chickenpox
- Smallpox
Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Diphtheria has not been eradicated; India still administers the Pentavalent vaccine (introduced in 2011–12) which includes DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus) component, indicating ongoing disease burden.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Chickenpox (Varicella) remains endemic in India; the Varicella vaccine is available but not part of the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP), and cases occur regularly across the country.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Smallpox was declared eradicated from India in 1975 (last case in 1975), and WHO certified global eradication in 1980; India played a key role in the worldwide eradication campaign.
With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a surface-to-surface missile.
- It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
- It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Agni-IV is a surface-to-surface ballistic missile designed to be launched from mobile land-based platforms and strike ground targets.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Agni-IV uses two-stage solid-fuel propulsion, not liquid propellant. Solid propellants provide better storage stability and quick launch capability.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Agni-IV has a range of approximately 4,000 km, not 7,500 km. While it can carry a one-tonne payload, the 7,500 km range figure is incorrect.
Consider the following:
- Bats
- Bears
- Rodents
The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Bats undergo hibernation during winter months when insect prey becomes scarce, entering torpor to conserve energy.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Bears (brown bears, black bears, polar bears) are well-known hibernators, though they experience a lighter form of dormancy compared to true hibernators.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Many rodent species like groundhogs, chipmunks, ground squirrels are true hibernators with drastically reduced body temperature and metabolic rate.
The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to -
Detailed Explanation:
The Radcliffe Commission was established in July 1947 under the chairmanship of Sir Cyril Radcliffe, a British lawyer, to delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan during the partition.
The commission had four members each from the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League, and was tasked with dividing the provinces of Punjab and Bengal based on religious demographics, completing its work in just five weeks before independence on August 15, 1947.
The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a
Detailed Explanation:
The Ghadr Party was a revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco, California, formed in 1913.
Founded by Lala Har Dayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna, it aimed to overthrow British colonial rule through armed revolution, drawing support mainly from Indian immigrants (Sikhs, Hindus, Muslims) in North America.
✅ Option 1 – Correct: Accurately identifies the Ghadr as a revolutionary association headquartered in San Francisco.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Singapore was not the headquarters; it was San Francisco.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Berlin was associated with other revolutionary groups like the Berlin Committee, not Ghadr.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Ghadr was not a communist movement, and Tashkent was not its headquarters.
The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the -
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Option 2 – Correct: The 1929 Lahore Session (presided by Jawaharlal Nehru) adopted Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) as the Congress goal, replacing the earlier demand for Dominion Status. January 26, 1930 was declared as Independence Day.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Self-Government (Swaraj) was declared much earlier at the 1906 Calcutta Session.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in 1920, not 1929.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Congress decided to boycott the First Round Table Conference (1930); participation in the Second Round Table Conference came only after the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931).
The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until -
Detailed Explanation:
The Partition of Bengal (1905) by Lord Curzon was annulled in 1911 when King George V announced its reversal at the Delhi Durbar.
The decision was taken due to intense anti-partition agitation and the Swadeshi Movement, which made the partition administratively and politically untenable for the British.
What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?
- To disclaim any intention to annex the Indian States
- To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
- To regulate East India Company’s trade with India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Proclamation of 1858 explicitly disclaimed any intention to annex Indian princely states, assuring rulers their territories would be respected and preserved.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The proclamation transferred Indian administration from the East India Company to the British Crown, establishing direct governance through a Viceroy.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Regulating the East India Company's trade was not an object of the proclamation; by 1858, the Company had already lost its trade monopoly and the proclamation focused on administrative transfer, not commercial regulation.
In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for
Detailed Explanation:
Mahattara and Pattakila were designations for village headmen in medieval India, responsible for local administration and revenue collection.
Mahattara was the superior/chief headman of the village, while Pattakila was the subordinate/assistant headman who assisted in administrative duties.
Consider the following pairs
| Region often in news | Country |
|---|---|
| 1. Chechnya | Russian Federation |
| 2. Darfur | Mali |
| 3. Swat Valley | Iraq |
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Pair 1 – Correct: Chechnya is a republic in the North Caucasus region of the Russian Federation.
❌ Pair 2 – Incorrect: Darfur is a region in western Sudan, not Mali.
❌ Pair 3 – Incorrect: Swat Valley is in the Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan, not Iraq.
With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:
- The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
- South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The First BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia in June 2009, not in Rio de Janeiro. Brazil hosted the Third BRICS Summit in 2011 after South Africa joined.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: South Africa joined the group in December 2010 (formally participated in 2011 Summit), becoming the fifth and last member, transforming BRIC into BRICS. The original members were Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
UPSC Prelims 2014 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Environment & Ecology
28 Qs (28%)Indian Art & Culture
14 Qs (14%)Indian Economy
14 Qs (14%)Indian Polity
10 Qs (10%)Science & Technology
9 Qs (9%)Indian Geography
7 Qs (7%)World Geography
5 Qs (5%)Modern History
5 Qs (5%)International Relations
4 Qs (4%)Medieval History
2 Qs (2%)Ancient History
1 Qs (1%)Current Affairs
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2014 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2014?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2014?
- Environment & Ecology: 28 questions (28%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 14 questions (14%)
- Indian Economy: 14 questions (14%)
- Indian Polity: 10 questions (10%)
- Science & Technology: 9 questions (9%)
- Indian Geography: 7 questions (7%)
- World Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- Modern History: 5 questions (5%)
- International Relations: 4 questions (4%)
- Medieval History: 2 questions (2%)
- Ancient History: 1 questions (1%)
- Current Affairs: 1 questions (1%)