UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2018 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements
- It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
- It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 2 and 3 only
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship skill development scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It aims to provide industry-relevant skill training, improve employability, and certify skills according to national standards.
❌ Statement I – Incorrect: PMKVY is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), not the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
✅ Statement II – Correct: PMKVY provides training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy, along with technical skills to improve employability.
✅ Statement III – Correct: One of PMKVY's key objectives is to align the skills of the unregulated workforce with the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), ensuring standardized skill certification.
As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements
- Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
- Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 per cent belong to OBCs.
- In Kerala, a little over 60 per cent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1 and 3 only
The NSSO 70th Round (Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households, 2013) provides detailed information on the social and economic conditions of agricultural households in India. Statements I and III match the survey findings, while Statement II overstates the share of OBC agricultural households.
✅ Statement I – Correct: Rajasthan had the highest share of agricultural households (78.4%) among rural households, according to the NSSO 70th Round survey.
❌ Statement II – Incorrect: OBC agricultural households accounted for about 45%, not over 60%, of the total agricultural households in India.
✅ Statement III – Correct: In Kerala, over 60% of agricultural households reported that their main source of income was non-agricultural activities, unlike most other states.
Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the Government of India?
- Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.
- Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
- Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our school, public places and major tourist centres
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 3 only
Digital India, launched in 2015, aims to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. Its focus is on providing digital infrastructure, digital governance, and digital literacy—not creating Indian internet companies or attracting multinational data centres.
❌ Statement I – Incorrect: Creating India's own internet companies like China is not an objective of the Digital India Programme.
❌ Statement II – Incorrect: The original Digital India Plan does not include a policy to encourage multinational companies to establish Big Data centres in India. This relates to later data localization and data centre policies, not Digital India.
✅ Statement III – Correct: A major objective of Digital India is to connect villages through broadband and provide Wi-Fi in schools, public places, and tourist centres under initiatives like Broadband Highways and the Public Internet Access Programme.
📝 Short Notes: Digital India Programme
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Launch | 1 July 2015 |
| Ministry | Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) |
| Vision | Transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy |
| Three Vision Areas | Digital Infrastructure, Governance & Services on Demand, Digital Empowerment of Citizens |
| Key Pillars | Broadband Highways, Public Internet Access, e-Governance, e-Kranti, Information for All, Digital Literacy |
| Village Connectivity | Expansion of broadband and internet connectivity to Gram Panchayats through BharatNet |
| Public Wi-Fi | Wi-Fi in schools, public places, railway stations, and tourist centres |
| Major Initiatives | DigiLocker, UMANG, e-Hospital, BHIM, Digital Payments, Common Service Centres (CSCs) |
Key Fact:
Digital India is built around three core goals—digital infrastructure, digital services, and digital empowerment, rather than promoting specific private internet companies.
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International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Child Labour
The International Labour Organization (ILO) has adopted two fundamental conventions to eliminate child labour worldwide. These conventions focus on fixing the minimum age for employment and abolishing the worst forms of child labour.
✅ Convention No. 138 – Correct: Known as the Minimum Age Convention (1973), it requires countries to prescribe a minimum age for employment and gradually eliminate child labour.
✅ Convention No. 182 – Correct: Known as the Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention (1999), it calls for the immediate prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of child labour, including slavery, trafficking, forced labour, and hazardous work.
Therefore, both conventions are related to child labour.
📝 Short Notes: ILO Conventions 138 & 182
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Organization | International Labour Organization (ILO) |
| Convention No. 138 | Minimum Age Convention, 1973 |
| Objective of C138 | Fix a minimum age for employment and progressively eliminate child labour |
| Convention No. 182 | Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 |
| Objective of C182 | Eliminate slavery, trafficking, forced labour, child prostitution, and hazardous child labour |
| Fundamental ILO Conventions | Both are among the ILO's Fundamental Conventions |
| India's Ratification | India ratified Conventions 138 and 182 in 2017 |
| Related Indian Law | Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 (amended in 2016) |
With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
- PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
- Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
- GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
Simple Explanation:
This question tests the basic difference between PSLV and GSLV launch vehicles.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: PSLV is mainly used to launch Earth observation/remotely sensed satellites into Polar or Sun-Synchronous Orbits, while GSLV is designed to launch heavy communication satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Satellites launched by PSLV do not remain fixed over one point on Earth. They move in Polar/Sun-Synchronous Orbits. Only geostationary satellites appear stationary in the sky.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: GSLV Mk III (LVM3) is a three-stage launch vehicle, not a four-stage vehicle. It consists of two solid strap-on boosters, one liquid core stage, and one cryogenic upper stage.
📝 Short Notes: PSLV & GSLV
-
PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is mainly used for Earth observation and Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO) missions.
-
GSLV is designed to place communication satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
-
LVM3 (formerly GSLV Mk III) is a three-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle with a cryogenic upper stage.
-
Cryogenic engines use liquid hydrogen (LH₂) and liquid oxygen (LOX) for high efficiency.
-
PSLV is known as ISRO's "workhorse launcher" due to its high reliability.
-
LVM3 successfully launched Chandrayaan-2, Chandrayaan-3, and the OneWeb satellite missions.
-
Geostationary satellites remain fixed relative to Earth, while Polar satellites continuously move over different regions.
Consider the following phenomena :
- Light is affected by gravity.
- The Universe is constantly expanding.
- Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?
Detailed Explanation:
The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 (Option 3). Einstein's General Theory of Relativity states that gravity bends light, matter curves space-time, and its equations also allow an expanding universe, which was later confirmed by observations.
General Theory of Relativity (1915) explains gravity as the curvature of space-time caused by mass and energy. It predicts phenomena like gravitational lensing, black holes, gravitational waves, and the expanding universe.
The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
Detailed Explanation:
The correct answer is Cyberattacks (Option 3). WannaCry and Petya are ransomware attacks that encrypt data and demand payment. EternalBlue is a cyber exploit that was used to spread the WannaCry attack by exploiting a Microsoft Windows vulnerability.
Ransomware is a type of malware that locks or encrypts a user's data and demands a ransom for restoring access. Major cyberattacks like WannaCry (2017) highlighted the importance of regular software updates and strong cybersecurity practices.
What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news?
Detailed Explanation:
The correct answer is An American anti-missile system (Option 3). THAAD (Terminal High Altitude Area Defense) is a missile defense system developed by the United States to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their final phase of flight.
THAAD is designed to intercept ballistic missiles both inside and outside the Earth's atmosphere. It is an important part of the U.S. missile defense network and has been deployed in countries such as South Korea and Saudi Arabia.
Consider the following pairs :
| Terms sometimes seen in news | Context /Topic |
|---|---|
| 1. Belle II experiment | Artificial Intelligence |
| 2. Blockchain technology | Digital/Cryptocurrency |
| 3. CRISPR — Cas9 | Particle Physics |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
Detailed Explanation:
The correct answer is 2 only (Option 2). Belle II is a particle physics experiment, not Artificial Intelligence. Blockchain is the technology behind cryptocurrencies. CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing technology used in biotechnology, not particle physics.
Blockchain is a decentralized digital ledger that records transactions securely and transparently. It is the core technology behind cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin and has applications in finance, supply chains, and digital identity.
Consider the following:
- Birds
- Dust blowing
- Rain
- Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
Detailed Explanation:
The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4 (Option 4). Birds, dust, rain, and wind all help spread plant diseases by carrying fungi, bacteria, viruses, or other pathogens from infected plants to healthy ones.
📗 Concept
Plant disease transmission occurs through different agents called vectors or dispersal agents. Wind and rain spread fungal spores and bacteria, while birds and other animals carry pathogens through their feathers, feet, or droppings.
In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
- Mobile phone operations
- Banking operations
- Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
GPS (Global Positioning System) is a satellite-based navigation system that provides precise geolocation and time information, making it useful across diverse applications beyond just navigation.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: GPS is integral to mobile phone operations for location tracking, navigation apps, and location-based services like ride-hailing and food delivery.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: GPS provides precise time-stamping for banking transactions, ensuring accurate record-keeping and synchronization across banking networks, and enables ATM location services.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: GPS is crucial for synchronizing power grid operations by providing accurate time stamps for measurements, which is essential for grid stability and preventing blackouts.
📝 Short Notes: GPS Technology Applications
- GPS (Global Positioning System): A satellite-based navigation system owned by the US government, consisting of 24+ satellites orbiting Earth.
- Primary Function: Provides geolocation (latitude, longitude, altitude) and precise time information to GPS receivers anywhere on Earth.
- Timing Applications: GPS satellites carry atomic clocks that provide nanosecond-level time accuracy, critical for telecommunications, banking, power grids, and stock markets.
- Navigation Uses: Aviation, maritime, vehicle navigation, surveying, mapping, and military operations.
- Location-Based Services: Mobile apps, emergency services (911/112), asset tracking, agriculture (precision farming), and weather forecasting.
- Other Global Systems: GLONASS (Russia), Galileo (EU), BeiDou (China), and NavIC/IRNSS (India's regional system).
With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :
- GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that gives the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
- GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
- GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
GM Mustard (DMH-11) is a genetically modified hybrid variety of Brassica juncea developed by Delhi University's Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants. It has been engineered with barnase-barstar genes to enable cross-pollination and hybridization for increased yield, not for pest-resistance.
✅ Statement 1 – Incorrect: GM mustard does not contain genes for pest-resistance; it is engineered for hybridization using barnase-barstar gene system, not Bt genes from soil bacteria.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: GM mustard contains genes (barnase, barstar, and bar genes) that facilitate cross-pollination and hybridization, enabling hybrid seed production.
✅ Statement 3 – Incorrect: GM mustard was developed by Delhi University's Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP), not jointly by IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
📝 Short Notes: GM Mustard (DMH-11)
- Full Name: Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11 (DMH-11), a genetically modified variety of Brassica juncea.
- Developed by: Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP), Delhi University under Prof. Deepak Pental.
- Genetic Modification: Uses barnase-barstar gene system borrowed from soil bacterium Bacillus amyloliquefaciens for male sterility and fertility restoration.
- Purpose: Enables cross-pollination in naturally self-pollinating mustard to produce high-yielding hybrids; increases yield by 25-30%.
- Key Genes: Bar gene (herbicide tolerance), barnase gene (male sterility), barstar gene (fertility restoration).
- Not Bt Crop: Unlike Bt cotton/brinjal, GM mustard does not have pest-resistance traits; it is purely for hybrid development.
- Regulatory Status: Approved by GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) in 2017 but faced public and legal challenges.
"3D printing" has applications in which of the following?
- Preparation of confectionery items
- Manufacture of bionic ears
- Automotive industry
- Reconstructive surgeries
- Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3D printing (additive manufacturing) has revolutionized multiple industries by enabling the creation of complex three-dimensional objects from digital files. All five applications mentioned—confectionery items, bionic ears, automotive parts, reconstructive surgery implants, and specialized components for data processing hardware—are well-documented uses of 3D printing technology.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: 3D printing is used in the food industry to create intricate and customized confectionery items like chocolates and candies with precise designs.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Researchers have successfully used 3D printing to manufacture bionic ears with integrated electronics for people with hearing impairments.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The automotive industry extensively uses 3D printing for rapid prototyping, custom parts manufacturing, and production of vehicle components.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: 3D printing is widely used in reconstructive surgeries to create patient-specific implants, prosthetics, and surgical guides tailored to individual anatomy.
✅ Statement 5 – Correct: 3D printing is utilized to manufacture specialized components and hardware parts for data processing technologies and computer systems.
📝 Short Notes: 3D Printing (Additive Manufacturing)
- Definition: 3D printing is a process of creating three-dimensional solid objects from a digital file by adding material layer by layer, hence called additive manufacturing.
- Basic Process: Involves computer-aided design (CAD) software to create digital models, which are then sliced into thin layers and printed using various materials like plastics, metals, ceramics, or even biological materials.
- Medical Applications: Custom prosthetics, dental implants, surgical instruments, anatomical models for surgery planning, bio-printed tissues and organs (experimental stage), and patient-specific implants.
- Industrial Applications: Rapid prototyping in automotive and aerospace industries, manufacturing of complex parts, tooling, and production of end-use components.
- Consumer Applications: Customized jewelry, toys, household items, fashion accessories, and personalized products.
- Emerging Applications: Food printing (chocolates, pasta, pizza), construction (3D printed houses), bioprinting (organs and tissues), and electronics manufacturing.
- Advantages: Design flexibility, waste reduction, customization, rapid prototyping, and ability to create complex geometries impossible with traditional manufacturing.
With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :
- IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
- IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
- India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
IRNSS (Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System), also known as NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), is India's independent regional navigation satellite system. Among the three statements, only the first statement correctly describes the satellite configuration of IRNSS.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary orbits (positioned at fixed points above the equator) and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits (inclined geosynchronous orbits at approximately 29° inclination).
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: IRNSS covers the entire India and extends approximately 1500 km beyond its borders (primary service area), not 5500 sq. km. The extended service area covers a much larger region from 30°S to 50°N latitude and 30°E to 130°E longitude.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: IRNSS/NavIC is a regional navigation system, not a global navigation system. It provides coverage over India and surrounding regions only. India does not have a satellite navigation system with full global coverage as of 2019 or currently.
📝 Short Notes: IRNSS/NavIC
- Full Form: Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), operational name NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation)
- Constellation: 7 satellites total - 3 in Geostationary Orbit (GEO) and 4 in Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO)
- Primary Service Area: India and region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary
- Extended Service Area: Region between 30°S to 50°N latitude and 30°E to 130°E longitude
- Operational Since: 2018 (all 7 satellites became operational)
- Applications: Terrestrial, aerial and marine navigation, disaster management, vehicle tracking, fleet management, integration with mobile phones, precise timing, mapping and geodetic data capture
- Administered by: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- Ground Segment: IRNSS Spacecraft Control Facility (IRSCF) at Hassan and Bhopal, IRNSS Range and Integrity Monitoring Stations (IRIMS) at multiple locations, and Navigation Control Centres
When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to the office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term best applies to the above scenario?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Internet of Things
The scenario describes an interconnected ecosystem where everyday devices (smartphone, geyser, smart mirror, refrigerator, car, etc.) communicate with each other autonomously, exchange data over a network, and perform automated tasks based on triggers without requiring direct human intervention. This is the defining characteristic of the Internet of Things (IoT), which connects physical objects embedded with sensors, software, and network connectivity to collect and exchange data.
Why other options are incorrect:
❌ Option 1 – Border Gateway Protocol: BGP is a routing protocol used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the internet; it is not related to device intercommunication.
❌ Option 3 – Internet Protocol: IP is a foundational protocol for addressing and routing packets across networks, but does not encompass the intelligent device-to-device communication described.
❌ Option 4 – Virtual Private Network: VPN is a technology for creating secure, encrypted connections over public networks, not for enabling smart device ecosystems.
📝 Short Notes: Internet of Things (IoT)
- Definition: IoT is a network of physical objects embedded with sensors, software, and connectivity that enables them to collect, exchange, and act on data autonomously.
- Key Components: Sensors/devices, connectivity (Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, cellular), data processing platforms, and user interfaces.
- Applications: Smart homes (automated lighting, thermostats), smart cities (traffic management, waste management), healthcare (wearable health monitors), agriculture (precision farming), and industrial automation.
- Benefits: Increased efficiency, real-time monitoring, predictive maintenance, energy conservation, and enhanced user convenience.
- Challenges: Security vulnerabilities, privacy concerns, interoperability issues between different devices/standards, and data management complexity.
- Examples in India: Smart cities mission, precision agriculture initiatives, connected vehicles, and smart grid projects for electricity distribution.
The identity platform `Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?
- It can be integrated into any electronic device.
- Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
The availability of open Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) for Aadhaar enables developers and organizations to integrate Aadhaar-based authentication and verification services into various electronic devices and applications. This architectural design allows for seamless integration across platforms and supports multiple authentication methods including biometric verification.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Open APIs allow Aadhaar to be integrated into any electronic device such as smartphones, tablets, Point of Sale (PoS) terminals, and other digital platforms, enabling developers to build Aadhaar-enabled applications.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Aadhaar's biometric authentication system supports online authentication using iris scans (along with fingerprints and facial recognition), making secure identity verification possible through the available APIs.
📝 Short Notes: Aadhaar and APIs
- Aadhaar: A 12-digit unique identity number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) to all Indian residents based on biometric and demographic data.
- Open APIs: Application Programming Interfaces that allow third-party developers to integrate Aadhaar services into their applications and devices without requiring proprietary access.
- Authentication Methods: Aadhaar supports multiple authentication modes including demographic (name, age, address), One-Time Password (OTP), and biometric (fingerprint, iris, facial recognition).
- e-KYC Services: Aadhaar APIs enable electronic Know Your Customer (e-KYC) services for instant verification in banking, telecom, and other sectors.
- Integration Capabilities: APIs facilitate integration across diverse platforms including mobile apps, web portals, ATMs, PoS devices, and IoT-enabled devices.
- Security Features: All API transactions are encrypted and follow strict security protocols to protect user privacy and prevent unauthorized access.
Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — To secure a fixed income for the Company
The Subsidiary Alliance was a military-political system introduced by Lord Wellesley (1798–1805) to expand British control over Indian princely states through strategic alliances rather than direct land revenue administration. Securing a fixed income for the Company was the primary objective of land revenue systems like the Permanent Settlement (1793) introduced by Lord Cornwallis, not the Subsidiary Alliance.
✅ Option 1 – Applies: Indian rulers had to maintain a British force in their territory and pay subsidies for it, enabling the Company to maintain a large standing army at the expense of Indian states.
❌ Option 2 – Does Not Apply: The Subsidiary Alliance focused on military and diplomatic control, not on securing fixed land revenue income for the Company.
✅ Option 3 – Applies: The system required Indian rulers to expel all French officials and troops from their territories, protecting India from Napoleonic French influence during the European wars.
✅ Option 4 – Applies: By controlling external relations, defense, and stationing British Residents at royal courts, the Company established British paramountcy over Indian states.
📝 Short Notes: Subsidiary Alliance System
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Introduced By | Lord Wellesley (Governor-General, 1798–1805) |
| Primary Objective | Expand British control through indirect military and diplomatic means |
| Key Features | • Indian ruler had to maintain British troops and pay subsidy • British Resident stationed at the court • Ruler could not employ non-British Europeans • Ruler could not engage in foreign relations without British approval • British provided protection from external threats |
| First State to Accept | Hyderabad (1798) |
| Major States Under Alliance | Hyderabad, Mysore (after 1799), Awadh, Peshwa, Bhonsle, Sindhia, Jodhpur, Jaipur, Macheri, Berar |
| States that Resisted | Travancore initially resisted but later accepted |
| Difference from Permanent Settlement | Subsidiary Alliance: military-diplomatic control Permanent Settlement: land revenue system for fixed income |
Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the -
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — commercialization of Indian agriculture
The British colonial policy in 19th century India deliberately transformed traditional subsistence agriculture into commercial agriculture focused on cash crops like indigo, cotton, tea, and opium to serve as raw materials for British industries. This commercialization served the economic interests of the British Empire by integrating Indian agriculture into the global capitalist economy while simultaneously destroying traditional handicrafts and preventing industrial growth in India.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Indian handicrafts declined drastically due to British policies favoring machine-made goods, leading to decreased exports.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Indian-owned factories did not grow significantly in the 19th century; British policies actively discouraged Indian industrialization.
✅ Option 3 – Correct: Commercialization of agriculture was a direct result of British colonial exploitation to extract raw materials.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: The 19th century witnessed deindustrialization and ruralization rather than rapid urban growth in India.
📝 Short Notes: Economic Impact of British Rule in 19th Century India
| Aspect | Impact |
|---|---|
| Commercialization of Agriculture | Shift from food crops to cash crops (indigo, cotton, tea, opium); Peasants forced to grow commercial crops; Land revenue demands increased; Created vulnerability to famines |
| Deindustrialization | Destruction of traditional handicrafts and artisan industries; Indian textiles replaced by British machine-made goods; Artisans lost livelihoods |
| Drain of Wealth | Systematic transfer of resources from India to Britain; Export surplus without corresponding imports; Home charges and tribute payments |
| Land Revenue Systems | Permanent Settlement (1793), Ryotwari, Mahalwari systems; High revenue demands led to peasant indebtedness; Growth of moneylenders and absentee landlordism |
| Infrastructure Development | Railways built primarily for raw material extraction and troop movement; Limited industrial development; Ports developed for export trade |
Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
- Charter Act of 1813
- General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
- Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1, 2 and 3
All three factors played crucial roles in the introduction of English education in India. The Charter Act of 1813 provided the financial foundation, the General Committee of Public Instruction (1823) was established to implement educational policy, and the Orientalist-Anglicist controversy ultimately resolved in favor of English education through Macaulay's Minute of 1835.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Charter Act of 1813 was the first official measure sanctioning one lakh rupees annually for promoting education and modern sciences in India, laying the financial foundation for British educational intervention.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The General Committee of Public Instruction was established in 1823 to implement the educational grant of 1813 and guide the East India Company's educational policy in India.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Orientalist-Anglicist controversy between supporters of traditional Indian learning and Western education culminated in Lord Macaulay's Minute of 1835, which established English as the medium of instruction.
📝 Short Notes: Introduction of English Education in India
| Year/Event | Significance |
|---|---|
| Charter Act of 1813 | First official sanction of Rs. 1 lakh annually for education and modern sciences in India; marked beginning of state involvement in Indian education |
| General Committee of Public Instruction (1823) | Established to implement the 1813 grant; became the forum for the Orientalist-Anglicist debate on educational policy |
| Orientalist-Anglicist Controversy | Orientalists (H.H. Wilson, H.T. Prinsep) favored Sanskrit/Arabic learning; Anglicists (Macaulay, Bentinck) favored Western education in English |
| Macaulay's Minute (1835) | Resolved the controversy in favor of English education; advocated creating "a class of persons Indian in blood and colour, but English in tastes, opinions and intellect" |
| Lord Bentinck's Resolution (1835) | Officially adopted English as the medium of instruction and made it the language of administration |
Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was established in 1948 by a group of socialists, Forward Bloc followers, and independent trade unionists. Among the prominent founders, Ashok Mehta (who became the first General Secretary), T.S. Ramanujam, and G.G. Mehta played key roles, making Option 4 the correct answer. R.S. Ruikar was elected as the first President of HMS.
📝 Short Notes: Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS)
- Year of Establishment: 1948
- Founders: Group of socialists, Forward Bloc followers, and independent unionists including Basawon Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, and G.G. Mehta
- First President: R.S. Ruikar
- First General Secretary: Ashok Mehta
- Ideology: Democratic socialism and non-communist trade unionism
- Affiliation: Initially aligned with Praja Socialist Party (PSP), later maintained independence
- Significance: One of the major central trade union organizations in India, representing workers' rights and welfare
UPSC Prelims 2018 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Indian Economy
18 Qs (18%)Indian Polity
15 Qs (15%)Environment & Ecology
14 Qs (14%)Modern History
13 Qs (13%)Science & Technology
12 Qs (12%)International Relations
8 Qs (8%)Indian Art & Culture
7 Qs (7%)Current Affairs
4 Qs (4%)Indian Geography
4 Qs (4%)World Geography
4 Qs (4%)Medieval History
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2018?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2018?
- Indian Economy: 18 questions (18%)
- Indian Polity: 15 questions (15%)
- Environment & Ecology: 14 questions (14%)
- Modern History: 13 questions (13%)
- Science & Technology: 12 questions (12%)
- International Relations: 8 questions (8%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 7 questions (7%)
- Current Affairs: 4 questions (4%)
- Indian Geography: 4 questions (4%)
- World Geography: 4 questions (4%)
- Medieval History: 1 questions (1%)