UPSC Prelims 2012
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 19 solved UPSC Prelims 2012 Indian Polity questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
- Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
- Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
- Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
- A periodic or at least a mid-year review of the programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
- Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 112 mandates placing the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) before Parliament, enabling financial scrutiny and control.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 114 requires Appropriation Bill passage before any withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring Parliamentary authorization.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Supplementary grants (Article 115) and vote-on-account (Article 116) provide mechanisms for Parliament to control additional or interim expenditure.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: India does not have a Parliamentary Budget Office for mid-year macroeconomic reviews; such institutional mechanisms are absent.
✅ Statement 5 – Correct: Finance Bill (Article 110) introduction in Parliament is mandatory for taxation proposals, enabling control over revenue measures.
Consider the following statements:
- Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
- It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
- According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 80 provides that Union Territories are represented in Rajya Sabha. Currently, Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir send representatives to Rajya Sabha.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Election disputes are adjudicated by High Courts under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, not by the Chief Election Commissioner. The Election Commission conducts elections but does not have judicial powers.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Article 79 states that Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. The President is an integral part of Parliament as no bill becomes law without Presidential assent.
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
- Right to a healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
- Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275( 1)
- Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted to provide effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests, which is in consonance with Article 21 (Right to Life). The Supreme Court has interpreted the Right to a healthy environment as an integral part of Article 21 in landmark cases like M.C. Mehta v. Union of India.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 275(1) deals with grants-in-aid from the Union to states, particularly for Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes welfare. The NGT Act has no connection with tribal welfare administration or grants under this provision.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Article 243(A) defines the Gram Sabha and its composition in the context of Panchayati Raj institutions. The NGT Act is a specialized environmental adjudicatory body and has no relation to Gram Sabha powers or local self-governance functions.
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Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
- A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
- A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
- Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Thirteenth Finance Commission (2010-2015) recommended a detailed roadmap for GST implementation including design features and a compensation mechanism for states transitioning to the new tax regime.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Job creation falls outside the mandate of Finance Commissions, which are constitutionally tasked with recommending tax devolution and grants-in-aid, not employment generation policies.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Commission recommended grants to local bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) as a specified share of central taxes, amounting to ₹87,519 crore for the 2010-15 period.
In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
- Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
- Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
- Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Section 4(m)(iii) of the PESA Act, 1996 empowers the Gram Sabha or Panchayat at appropriate level to prevent alienation of land in Scheduled Areas and restore unlawfully alienated land of Scheduled Tribes.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Section 4(m)(ii) of the PESA Act grants ownership of minor forest produce to the Gram Sabha or Panchayats at the appropriate level.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Section 4(k) of the Act mandates recommendation of Gram Sabha or Panchayats only for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals, not for all minerals in Scheduled Areas.
In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for the intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
- CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
- CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
- Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
- While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: CAG does not exercise exchequer control during national/financial emergency; it performs audit functions independently under Article 148-151, not executive control over funds.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: CAG reports on execution of projects/programmes are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), which scrutinizes government expenditure based on these audit findings.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Information from CAG audit reports can be used by investigating agencies (CBI, ED) as evidence to initiate action against those who misused public funds or violated financial laws.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: CAG has no judicial powers to prosecute; it is an audit body that reports irregularities but cannot conduct prosecutions or impose penalties.
In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is:
Detailed Explanation:
Adjournment Motion is an extraordinary parliamentary device used in the Lok Sabha only (not in Rajya Sabha) to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance. It interrupts the normal business of the House and is considered a tool of censure against the government, requiring support of at least 50 members for admission.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Question Hour and other devices are used for collecting information from ministers, not adjournment motion.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: This describes Cut Motion, which is used to reduce specific amounts in demand for grants during Budget discussion.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: This describes Adjournment of the House, a power exercised by the Presiding Officer to suspend sitting due to disorder or lack of quorum, not a motion moved by members.
A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of:
- Ordinary Legislation
- Money Bill
- Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 108 provides for a joint sitting to resolve deadlocks on Ordinary Bills if a bill is rejected by the other House, amendments are not agreed upon, or more than six months elapse without passage.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Money Bills (Article 110) cannot have a joint sitting. The Lok Sabha has overriding powers; the Rajya Sabha can only recommend within 14 days, after which the bill is deemed passed.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Constitution Amendment Bills (Article 368) require passage by special majority in each House separately. No provision exists for a joint sitting in case of disagreement.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Directive Principles of State Policy directly address education through Article 21A (Right to Education), Article 41 (education in certain cases), and Article 45 (Early Childhood Care and Education for children below 6 years).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Eleventh Schedule (Panchayats) and Twelfth Schedule (Municipalities) empower Rural and Urban Local Bodies to manage primary education, secondary education, and technical training institutions.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Fifth Schedule (Para 4) mandates promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Tribes in Scheduled Areas through State Governors' reports.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Sixth Schedule (Para 3) grants Autonomous District Councils powers to establish, construct, and manage primary schools, dispensaries, and markets in tribal areas of Northeast India.
✅ Statement 5 – Correct: Seventh Schedule - Concurrent List (Entry 25) places education under joint jurisdiction of Parliament and State Legislatures, enabling both to legislate on educational matters.
All five provisions have constitutional bearing on education.
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
- The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
- The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
- The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
- The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 281 mandates the President to lay the Finance Commission's recommendations before Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a Parliamentary Committee that examines CAG reports and presents its own report to Parliament; the President does not lay PAC reports.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 151 requires the President to cause the CAG's reports relating to Union accounts to be laid before each House of Parliament.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 338(5) requires the President to lay the annual report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes before Parliament with an action taken memorandum.
Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
- To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
- To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
- To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
- To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 51A(f) mandates preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture as a Fundamental Duty.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Protecting weaker sections from social injustice is a Directive Principle under Article 46, not a Fundamental Duty.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 51A(h) requires developing scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 51A(j) mandates striving towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
- While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
- The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
- The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
- All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 124(2) mandates that the President must consult the Chief Justice of India (CJI) while appointing Supreme Court Judges, ensuring judicial say in appointments.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Supreme Court Judges can only be removed by the President through impeachment after an address by Parliament with special majority (majority of total membership + two-thirds of present and voting), not by the CJI.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 146(3) provides that salaries and allowances of Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, requiring no legislative vote, ensuring financial independence from Parliament.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Article 146(2) states that appointments of officers and staff are made by the CJI or officers appointed by the CJI, not by the Government.
With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
- The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
- When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 329(a) of the Constitution and the Delimitation Commission Act, the orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in any court of law. They have the force of law and are final to prevent judicial delays in the electoral process.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: When the orders are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, these bodies cannot modify them. The orders are placed for information only, ensuring the independence and finality of the delimitation process, free from political interference.
The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the -
Detailed Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced the three-tier division of powers into Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List, which directly inspired the current Union List, State List, and Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution (Seventh Schedule).
This federal structure with detailed distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States was a novel feature borrowed from the 1935 Act, making it the blueprint for India's federal governance framework.
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
Detailed Explanation:
Article 75(5) of the Constitution states that a minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament for six consecutive months ceases to be a minister at the expiration of that period.
Since the Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers, this provision applies—meaning the PM need not be a member at appointment but must become a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha within six months, failing which he/she ceases to hold office.
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :
- Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
- Organizing village Panchayats
- Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
- Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code) is a Liberal-Intellectual principle, not a Gandhian principle.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 40 (organizing village panchayats) is a Gandhian principle reflecting Gandhi's vision of self-governance at the village level.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 43 (promoting cottage industries in rural areas) is a Gandhian principle emphasizing rural economic self-reliance.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Article 43 (securing leisure and cultural opportunities for workers) is a Socialist principle, not a Gandhian principle.
Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Option 2 – Correct: Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority of members present and voting) enabling Parliament to legislate on State List subjects in national interest. Article 312 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority) authorizing Parliament to create All India Services.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Article 3 grants power to Parliament (both Houses) to alter boundaries/names of states, not an exclusive power of Rajya Sabha.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Presidential election procedure amendment requires Constitutional Amendment (Article 368) by both Houses; President's pension is determined by Parliament (both Houses) under Article 59(3).
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Article 324(2) empowers the President (not Rajya Sabha) to determine the number of Election Commissioners; their conditions of service are regulated by Parliament (both Houses).
Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
- A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
- A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or Legislature of a State
- A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
- A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 131 grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court over disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Election disputes regarding Parliament or State Legislature are handled by High Courts and Election Tribunals, not under Supreme Court's original jurisdiction.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Union Territories are not included in Article 131; original jurisdiction covers only disputes involving States.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 131 provides original jurisdiction for disputes between two or more States.
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
- He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
- He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
- If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Speaker does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. He/she is elected by the Lok Sabha and can be removed only by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members of the House. The Speaker continues in office even after dissolution of the Lok Sabha until immediately before the first meeting of the new House.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Under Article 93, the Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of election. The six-month membership rule applies to Ministers (Article 75), not to the Speaker or Deputy Speaker.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: As per Article 94(b), the Speaker resigns by writing under his/her hand addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Similarly, the Deputy Speaker's resignation is addressed to the Speaker.
UPSC Prelims 2012 - Indian Polity Chapter-wise Distribution
Parliament
6 Qs (31.6%)Union Executive
2 Qs (10.5%)Constitutional Bodies
2 Qs (10.5%)Supreme Court
2 Qs (10.5%)Directive Principles of State Policy
2 Qs (10.5%)Historical Background of the Constitution
1 Qs (5.3%)Elections and Electoral System
1 Qs (5.3%)Fundamental Duties
1 Qs (5.3%)Local Government
1 Qs (5.3%)Fundamental Rights
1 Qs (5.3%)UPSC Prelims 2012 - Indian Polity Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Polity questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2012?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Polity in UPSC Prelims 2012?
- Parliament: 6 questions (31.6%)
- Union Executive: 2 questions (10.5%)
- Constitutional Bodies: 2 questions (10.5%)
- Supreme Court: 2 questions (10.5%)
- Directive Principles of State Policy: 2 questions (10.5%)
- Historical Background of the Constitution: 1 questions (5.3%)
- Elections and Electoral System: 1 questions (5.3%)
- Fundamental Duties: 1 questions (5.3%)
- Local Government: 1 questions (5.3%)
- Fundamental Rights: 1 questions (5.3%)