UPSC Prelims 2026 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2026 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. Article 393 explicitly gives the Constitution its short title, stating: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India."
Statement 2 — Incorrect. Article 395 explicitly repeals colonial-era legislation — specifically the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 (along with all amending/supplementing enactments, except the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949).
Statement 3 — Incorrect. Article 394 explicitly mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of commencement, stating that remaining provisions "shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which day is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution."
All three statements are factually wrong — each claims an Article does NOT exist, when in fact Articles 393, 394, and 395 directly address each claim.
Key Articles to Remember:
| Article | Content |
|---|---|
| 393 | Short title — "Constitution of India" |
| 394 | Commencement — 26th January 1950 |
| 395 | Repeal of Indian Independence Act 1947 & GoI Act 1935 |
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?
Detailed Explanation:
Why Accountability is correct: Accountability is the obligation of public officials to take responsibility for their actions, ensure transparency, and answer to oversight bodies. Mr. X demonstrated this by:
- Reporting compromised vaccine quality to the vigilance authority
- Halting the contract despite immense pressure from vested interests
- Prioritising citizen welfare over convenience and pressure
Why other options are wrong:
| Option | Principle | Why Not Applicable Here |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Esprit de corps | Team spirit/unity among personnel — not relevant to reporting misconduct |
| 2 | Equity | Fairness in distribution — his act was about taking responsibility, not fairness |
| 4 | Delegation | Transfer of authority — Mr. X was holding the delegated party accountable, not delegating |
Key Distinction: Accountability ≠ Whistleblowing alone. It is a proactive obligation to report, correct, and answer for public actions — especially when public health and funds are at stake.
In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.
As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above:
- A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
- The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
- Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
- Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Correct. In standard mediation practice, acknowledging cultural and historical grievances of marginalized groups is the essential first step. Validating tribal concerns builds trust and creates a conducive environment before negotiating technical alternatives.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. While urban health concerns reflect the utilitarian principle of "greatest good for greatest number," democratic governance and rights-based ethics prohibit steamrolling fundamental rights of vulnerable minorities. Tribal rights are protected under:
- Constitution — Fifth & Sixth Schedules
- Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006
- PESA, 1996 — mandates community consent
Statement 3 — Correct. A multi-stakeholder dialogue platform (tribal leaders + environmental experts + municipal representatives) fosters inclusive participatory governance, builds mutual understanding, and effectively de-escalates tensions through consensus-building.
Statement 4 — Correct. An independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) transparently shared with all sides ensures evidence-based decision-making, counters misinformation, and helps stakeholders objectively evaluate ecological and human costs.
Core Ethical Principle: Conflict resolution in a diverse democracy requires procedural fairness — the process matters as much as the outcome. Rights of minorities cannot be sacrificed for majority convenience.
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X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Key Provision — Article 13(3)(a): The definition of "law" under Article 13 is highly expansive and explicitly includes:
- Ordinances
- Orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications
- Custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law
Analysis:
| Person | View | Correctness |
|---|---|---|
| X | Law includes ordinances, orders, rules & regulations — but doubted inclusion of custom | ❌ Partially wrong — correct on formal instruments, wrong to exclude custom |
| Y | Law also includes custom or usage having the force of law | ✅ Completely correct |
Why this matters: Uncodified traditional practices that hold the force of law are subject to the same constitutional scrutiny as formal legislative statutes. This prevents the State from bypassing Fundamental Rights through traditional or executive means.
Key Principle: Article 13 is a protective provision — its broad definition of "law" ensures no instrument (formal or customary) can override Fundamental Rights.
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
- A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
- The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
- Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Correct. Under Section 173(1) of BNSS, 2023, a Zero FIR can be lodged at any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction for cognizable offences. The receiving station must forward it to the jurisdictionally competent station after registration.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. While Section 173(3) of BNSS allows for a preliminary enquiry, it is not specifically tied to Zero FIR registration. It applies to cognizable offences punishable by 3 to 7 years of imprisonment and requires prior permission of a competent authority — the statement incorrectly links it exclusively to Zero FIR.
Statement 3 — Incorrect. Electronic submission of information is not mandatory. Section 173(1) allows information to be given either orally OR by electronic communication — it is an option, not an obligation.
Key Distinctions:
| Aspect | Correct Position |
|---|---|
| Jurisdiction | Any police station — Zero FIR covers cognizable offences |
| Preliminary enquiry | Not exclusive to Zero FIR; requires specific conditions |
| Mode of information | Oral OR electronic — not mandatory to be electronic |
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
- Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
- No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
- Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha — NOT the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. The composition is reversed:
- 20 members → elected by Lok Sabha
- 10 members → elected by Rajya Sabha
Statement 3 — Incorrect. No Minister is eligible to be a member — there is absolutely no exception, not even for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment. If a member is appointed Minister after election, they immediately cease to be a member.
Statement 4 — Incorrect. The term does not exceed one year — NOT two years. It is reconstituted annually, like other major standing committees (PAC, Estimates Committee).
All Four Statements are Wrong — Quick Reference:
| Statement | Claimed | Correct |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Chairperson by RS Chairman | By Lok Sabha Speaker |
| 2 | 20 RS + 10 LS | 20 LS + 10 RS |
| 3 | Minister of SJ&E exempt | No minister exempt |
| 4 | 2-year term | 1-year term |
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :
- Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
- Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
- No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. Unstarred questions require a written answer — NOT oral. The written reply is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the concerned Minister.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. Starred questions (marked with *) require an oral answer on the floor of the House — NOT written.
Statement 3 — Correct. Since unstarred questions are answered in writing, no supplementary (follow-up) questions can be asked on them. Supplementary questions can only be asked after oral replies to:
- Starred questions
- Short Notice Questions
Quick Reference Table:
| Type | Answer Mode | Supplementary Allowed? |
|---|---|---|
| ⭐ Starred Question | Oral on floor of House | ✅ Yes |
| Unstarred Question | Written (laid on Table) | ❌ No |
| Short Notice Question | Oral | ✅ Yes |
Key Trick: Statements 1 and 2 are exact swaps of each other — a classic UPSC reversal trap.
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
- Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
- The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) governs Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram — NOT the Fifth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in all other states.
Statement 2 — Correct. Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, Scheduled Tribe members residing in specified regions are exempt from income tax on income generated within those areas:
- Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Ladakh
- Also covers dividends and interest on securities
Statement 3 — Correct. Article 243D mandates reservation of seats in Panchayats for SCs and STs. Further, Article 243D(2) explicitly requires that not less than one-third of seats reserved for SCs and STs must be reserved for women belonging to SCs/STs.
Key Trick: Statement 1 is a classic Fifth vs Sixth Schedule swap — one of the most frequently tested UPSC traps in Polity.
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
| Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance |
| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
Detailed Explanation:
Row 1 — Incorrect. CEIB functions under Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue) — NOT Ministry of Home Affairs. It is the nodal agency for economic intelligence coordination.
Row 2 — Incorrect. SFIO functions under Ministry of Corporate Affairs — NOT Ministry of Finance. It investigates serious and complex corporate frauds (white-collar crimes).
Row 3 — Correct. CBI — mandate to preserve values in public life and ensure health of national economy — correctly placed under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (DoPT).
Correct Reference Table:
| Organisation | Function | Correct Ministry |
|---|---|---|
| CEIB | Economic intelligence coordination | Ministry of Finance (Dept. of Revenue) |
| SFIO | Corporate fraud investigation | Ministry of Corporate Affairs |
| CBI | Corruption, economic offences, special crimes | Ministry of Personnel, PG & Pensions (DoPT) ✅ |
Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?
Detailed Explanation:
What is Tungurahua?
| Feature | Detail |
|---|---|
| Meaning | "Throat of Fire" (Quichua language) |
| Type | Highly active Stratovolcano |
| Location | Cordillera Oriental, Central Andes, Ecuador |
| UNESCO Status | Global Geopark — April 2025 |
| Area | 2,300+ sq km across Tungurahua & Chimborazo provinces |
| Geological History | 417 million years preserved |
| National Park | Within Sangay National Park |
| Nearby Town | Baños de Agua Santa |
❌ Why Other Options Are Wrong
| Country | Their Notable Volcano | Why Wrong |
|---|---|---|
| Peru | Ubinas | Shares Andes but Tungurahua is NOT here |
| Bolivia | — | No connection to Tungurahua |
| Colombia | Nevado del Ruiz | Also Andean but different country |
Revision Tip: All four countries share the Andes — the trap is assuming any Andean volcano could be in any of these countries. Always pin Tungurahua = Ecuador.
Consider the following assertion :
In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.
Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ?
- The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
- The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
- The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
🧠 Concept First — What is Being Asked?
This question tests understanding of Pleistocene river piracy and drainage evolution in the Indian subcontinent — specifically the ancient connection between the Indus and Ganga river systems.
🌊 The Core Geological Idea
During the Pleistocene epoch, a single massive river called the Indo-Brahma (Shiwalik River) is believed to have connected modern Indus and Ganga basins. Later, tectonic uplift (Delhi Ridge) caused river avulsion — Yamuna shifted east to Ganga, Sutlej shifted west to Indus.
📋 Statement-wise Analysis
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Nadi-Sukta (Rigveda 10.75) lists rivers east to west (Ganga, Yamuna, Sarasvati, Sutlej). It reflects Holocene human geography — NOT Pleistocene geological shifts which occurred millions of years before the Vedic period.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. Robert Bruce Foote = "Father of Indian Prehistory" — famous for discovering India's first Paleolithic handaxe at Pallavaram, Tamil Nadu (1863). His work focused on Stone Age archaeology in South India and Gujarat — NOT geological mapping of Sutlej-Yamuna shifts.
Statement 3 — Correct. The presence of closely related blind river dolphins in two completely separated basins:
- Platanista gangetica minor → Indus
- Platanista gangetica gangetica → Ganga
Same species in separated basins = biological proof of ancient river connection = primary basis of the assertion.
Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:
- It has an antecedent drainage system.
- It flows through three countries.
- It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
- It does not form distributaries.
Select the answer from the following:
Detailed Explanation:
Explanation:
The Sutlej River satisfies all the given conditions. It is an antecedent river, originating near Rakshastal in the Tibetan Plateau and flowing through China, India, and Pakistan.
It is an important source of irrigation in northwestern India and, unlike the Indus and Brahmaputra, does not form distributaries. Instead, it joins the Chenab before ultimately merging with the Indus system.
Therefore, Option C (Sutlej) is correct.
|
An antecedent river is a river that existed before the formation of a mountain range and maintained its original course by cutting through the rising terrain. The Indus, Sutlej, and Brahmaputra are classic examples of antecedent rivers in the Himalayas. |
Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?
- Bahrain
- Syria
- Qatar
- Egypt
Select the answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
The correct answer is 1 and 3 (Option 2). Bahrain and Qatar are located in the Persian Gulf, so their ships must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to enter the Indian Ocean. Syria and Egypt can reach the Indian Ocean through the Mediterranean–Suez Canal–Red Sea route without crossing this strait.
| Strait of Hormuz is a narrow water passage connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and the Indian Ocean. It is one of the world's most important maritime routes for oil transportation. |
Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?
- Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
- Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
- Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh shares borders with the highest number of Indian jurisdictions (8 States and 1 Union Territory).
Statement 2 is incorrect. West Bengal has the longest international border among Indian States (with Bangladesh, Nepal, and Bhutan), not Rajasthan.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Sikkim is not the only State sharing a boundary with just one other State; Meghalaya also shares its border only with Assam.
Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ?
- It is the largest desert lake in the world.
- The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
- The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
📘 Explanation (English):
Statement 1 is correct. Lake Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the largest alkaline lake.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The lake is located mainly in northern Kenya and extends into Ethiopia. It is part of the Great Rift Valley, not South Sudan or the Sahara Desert.
Statement 3 is correct. Lake Turkana National Parks are a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and the lake is known as the “Jade Sea” because of its greenish-blue waters.
Lake Turkana
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Lake Turkana is an important Rift Valley lake in East Africa.
-
It is famous for its alkaline water, rich fossil sites, UNESCO status, and the nickname “Jade Sea.”
Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ?
- Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
- Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
- Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The western part of the Peninsular Block experienced tectonic subsidence, causing parts of the western coast to sink below sea level.
Statement 2 is correct. The Peninsular Block contains old residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda Hills and Mahendragiri Hills, which are remnants of ancient mountains.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Peninsular rivers are mature rivers with broad and shallow valleys. Deep V-shaped valleys are mainly associated with the youthful Himalayan river system.
Peninsular Block of India
-
It is the oldest and most stable geological region of India, made up of hard crystalline rocks.
-
The region is characterized by residual hills, plateaus, mature river systems, and low tectonic activity compared to the Himalayas.
With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
- It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
- Maximum precipitation is between December and May.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Explanation
-
Statement 1 is Correct: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a humid tropical coastal climate with warm temperatures and high humidity throughout the year.
-
Statement 2 is Correct: The islands receive rainfall from both the South-West Monsoon and the North-East Monsoon, resulting in abundant annual rainfall.
-
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The maximum rainfall occurs between May and September during the South-West Monsoon. The period from December to May is comparatively drier and is the peak tourist season.
-
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.
Climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
-
The islands experience an equatorial maritime influence, leading to small annual temperature variation and high humidity.
-
Rainfall is received from both monsoon systems, unlike most parts of mainland India.
Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct ?
- Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
- China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
- The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
- Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Explanation:
-
Statement 1 is Correct: Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are essential for modern technologies such as Artificial Intelligence, robotics, electric vehicles, renewable energy systems, space exploration, and defense equipment.
-
Statement 2 is Incorrect: China is the largest producer of REEs, but the United States is the second-largest producer. India is not the second-largest producer globally.
-
Statement 3 is Correct: The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in January 2025 to strengthen domestic production, secure supply chains, and reduce import dependence.
-
Statement 4 is Incorrect: Rare Earth Elements consist of 17 elements—15 lanthanides along with scandium and yttrium—not 13 elements.
-
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option A the correct answer.
Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals
-
REEs are a group of 17 metallic elements used in high-tech industries, clean energy technologies, electronics, and defense systems.
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Critical minerals are minerals essential for economic security and strategic industries, with limited supply sources and high import dependence.
At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".
Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) follows a strategic framework centered on transforming agrifood systems through the "Four Betters" approach.
The Four Betters are:
-
Better Production
-
Better Nutrition
-
Better Environment
-
Better Life
The Blue Transformation initiative aims to make fisheries and aquaculture more sustainable and resilient while contributing to these four goals.
Options A, C, and D are incorrect because terms like better ocean, better coral reefs, better estuaries, and better mangrove vegetation are not part of FAO's official framework.
Therefore, Option B is the correct answer.
FAO's Blue Transformation
-
Blue Transformation is FAO's strategy to sustainably expand aquatic food systems, including fisheries and aquaculture.
-
It supports food security, nutrition, livelihoods, and environmental sustainability through the framework of the Four Betters.
With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
- Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
- Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct: Madhav National Park was declared India’s 58th Tiger Reserve in March 2025, becoming the 9th Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 2 is Correct: Sakhya Sagar, located within the National Park, was designated as a Ramsar Site in 2022 due to its rich wetland biodiversity and migratory bird habitat.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Madhav National Park is located entirely in Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh. It does not extend into Rajasthan.
Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, making Option B the correct answer.
Madhav National Park
-
Located in Shivpuri, Madhya Pradesh, Madhav National Park is part of the Upper Vindhyan Hills ecosystem.
-
It gained national importance after being notified as India's 58th Tiger Reserve in 2025 and contains the Ramsar-listed Sakhya Sagar Wetland.
UPSC Prelims 2026 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
Science & Technology
19 Qs (19%)Indian Economy
18 Qs (18%)International Relations
11 Qs (11%)Ancient History
9 Qs (9%)Indian Polity
8 Qs (8%)Environment & Ecology
8 Qs (8%)Indian Art & Culture
7 Qs (7%)Modern History
5 Qs (5%)Indian Geography
5 Qs (5%)World Geography
4 Qs (4%)Ethics, Integrity & Aptitude
3 Qs (3%)Current Affairs
2 Qs (2%)Internal Security
1 Qs (1%)UPSC Prelims 2026 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2026?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2026?
- Science & Technology: 19 questions (19%)
- Indian Economy: 18 questions (18%)
- International Relations: 11 questions (11%)
- Ancient History: 9 questions (9%)
- Indian Polity: 8 questions (8%)
- Environment & Ecology: 8 questions (8%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 7 questions (7%)
- Modern History: 5 questions (5%)
- Indian Geography: 5 questions (5%)
- World Geography: 4 questions (4%)
- Ethics, Integrity & Aptitude: 3 questions (3%)
- Current Affairs: 2 questions (2%)
- Internal Security: 1 questions (1%)