UPSC Prelims 2026
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 8 solved UPSC Prelims 2026 Indian Polity questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ?
- The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
- The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
- The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Revamped RGSA was approved for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period) — NOT from 1st April 2021.
Statement 2 — Correct. The primary objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop and enhance the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to effectively deliver on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through localisation of SDGs at the grassroots level via inclusive local governance.
Statement 3 — Incorrect. RGSA is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme — NOT 100% centrally funded for all States/UTs. The funding pattern is:
| Category | Centre : State |
|---|---|
| General Category States | 60 : 40 |
| NE States, Hilly States, J&K (UT) | 90 : 10 |
| Other UTs & Central Components | 100% Central |
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
- There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. Article 393 explicitly gives the Constitution its short title, stating: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India."
Statement 2 — Incorrect. Article 395 explicitly repeals colonial-era legislation — specifically the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 (along with all amending/supplementing enactments, except the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949).
Statement 3 — Incorrect. Article 394 explicitly mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of commencement, stating that remaining provisions "shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which day is referred to in this Constitution as the commencement of this Constitution."
All three statements are factually wrong — each claims an Article does NOT exist, when in fact Articles 393, 394, and 395 directly address each claim.
Key Articles to Remember:
| Article | Content |
|---|---|
| 393 | Short title — "Constitution of India" |
| 394 | Commencement — 26th January 1950 |
| 395 | Repeal of Indian Independence Act 1947 & GoI Act 1935 |
X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Key Provision — Article 13(3)(a): The definition of "law" under Article 13 is highly expansive and explicitly includes:
- Ordinances
- Orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications
- Custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law
Analysis:
| Person | View | Correctness |
|---|---|---|
| X | Law includes ordinances, orders, rules & regulations — but doubted inclusion of custom | ❌ Partially wrong — correct on formal instruments, wrong to exclude custom |
| Y | Law also includes custom or usage having the force of law | ✅ Completely correct |
Why this matters: Uncodified traditional practices that hold the force of law are subject to the same constitutional scrutiny as formal legislative statutes. This prevents the State from bypassing Fundamental Rights through traditional or executive means.
Key Principle: Article 13 is a protective provision — its broad definition of "law" ensures no instrument (formal or customary) can override Fundamental Rights.
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Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
- A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
- The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
- Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Correct. Under Section 173(1) of BNSS, 2023, a Zero FIR can be lodged at any police station regardless of territorial jurisdiction for cognizable offences. The receiving station must forward it to the jurisdictionally competent station after registration.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. While Section 173(3) of BNSS allows for a preliminary enquiry, it is not specifically tied to Zero FIR registration. It applies to cognizable offences punishable by 3 to 7 years of imprisonment and requires prior permission of a competent authority — the statement incorrectly links it exclusively to Zero FIR.
Statement 3 — Incorrect. Electronic submission of information is not mandatory. Section 173(1) allows information to be given either orally OR by electronic communication — it is an option, not an obligation.
Key Distinctions:
| Aspect | Correct Position |
|---|---|
| Jurisdiction | Any police station — Zero FIR covers cognizable offences |
| Preliminary enquiry | Not exclusive to Zero FIR; requires specific conditions |
| Mode of information | Oral OR electronic — not mandatory to be electronic |
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
- Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
- No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
- Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha — NOT the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. The composition is reversed:
- 20 members → elected by Lok Sabha
- 10 members → elected by Rajya Sabha
Statement 3 — Incorrect. No Minister is eligible to be a member — there is absolutely no exception, not even for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment. If a member is appointed Minister after election, they immediately cease to be a member.
Statement 4 — Incorrect. The term does not exceed one year — NOT two years. It is reconstituted annually, like other major standing committees (PAC, Estimates Committee).
All Four Statements are Wrong — Quick Reference:
| Statement | Claimed | Correct |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Chairperson by RS Chairman | By Lok Sabha Speaker |
| 2 | 20 RS + 10 LS | 20 LS + 10 RS |
| 3 | Minister of SJ&E exempt | No minister exempt |
| 4 | 2-year term | 1-year term |
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :
- Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
- Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
- No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. Unstarred questions require a written answer — NOT oral. The written reply is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by the concerned Minister.
Statement 2 — Incorrect. Starred questions (marked with *) require an oral answer on the floor of the House — NOT written.
Statement 3 — Correct. Since unstarred questions are answered in writing, no supplementary (follow-up) questions can be asked on them. Supplementary questions can only be asked after oral replies to:
- Starred questions
- Short Notice Questions
Quick Reference Table:
| Type | Answer Mode | Supplementary Allowed? |
|---|---|---|
| ⭐ Starred Question | Oral on floor of House | ✅ Yes |
| Unstarred Question | Written (laid on Table) | ❌ No |
| Short Notice Question | Oral | ✅ Yes |
Key Trick: Statements 1 and 2 are exact swaps of each other — a classic UPSC reversal trap.
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :
- Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
- The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) governs Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram — NOT the Fifth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in all other states.
Statement 2 — Correct. Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, Scheduled Tribe members residing in specified regions are exempt from income tax on income generated within those areas:
- Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, and Ladakh
- Also covers dividends and interest on securities
Statement 3 — Correct. Article 243D mandates reservation of seats in Panchayats for SCs and STs. Further, Article 243D(2) explicitly requires that not less than one-third of seats reserved for SCs and STs must be reserved for women belonging to SCs/STs.
Key Trick: Statement 1 is a classic Fifth vs Sixth Schedule swap — one of the most frequently tested UPSC traps in Polity.
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
| Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance |
| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
Detailed Explanation:
Row 1 — Incorrect. CEIB functions under Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue) — NOT Ministry of Home Affairs. It is the nodal agency for economic intelligence coordination.
Row 2 — Incorrect. SFIO functions under Ministry of Corporate Affairs — NOT Ministry of Finance. It investigates serious and complex corporate frauds (white-collar crimes).
Row 3 — Correct. CBI — mandate to preserve values in public life and ensure health of national economy — correctly placed under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (DoPT).
Correct Reference Table:
| Organisation | Function | Correct Ministry |
|---|---|---|
| CEIB | Economic intelligence coordination | Ministry of Finance (Dept. of Revenue) |
| SFIO | Corporate fraud investigation | Ministry of Corporate Affairs |
| CBI | Corruption, economic offences, special crimes | Ministry of Personnel, PG & Pensions (DoPT) ✅ |
UPSC Prelims 2026 - Indian Polity Chapter-wise Distribution
Parliament
2 Qs (25%)Fundamental Rights
1 Qs (12.5%)Making of the Indian Constitution
1 Qs (12.5%)Local Government
1 Qs (12.5%)Non-Constitutional Bodies
1 Qs (12.5%)Special Constitutional Provisions
1 Qs (12.5%)Constitutional and Political Developments
1 Qs (12.5%)UPSC Prelims 2026 - Indian Polity Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Polity questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2026?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Polity in UPSC Prelims 2026?
- Parliament: 2 questions (25%)
- Fundamental Rights: 1 questions (12.5%)
- Making of the Indian Constitution: 1 questions (12.5%)
- Local Government: 1 questions (12.5%)
- Non-Constitutional Bodies: 1 questions (12.5%)
- Special Constitutional Provisions: 1 questions (12.5%)
- Constitutional and Political Developments: 1 questions (12.5%)