67th BPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for 67th BPSC Prelims 2022 featuring 150 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
Which of the following posts was held by A. S. Anand in late 1990’s?
Detailed Explanation:
A. S. Anand served as the 26th Chief Justice of India from October 10, 1998 to October 31, 2001, covering the late 1990s period mentioned in the question.
He was not appointed as Comptroller and Auditor General, Chief Vigilance Commissioner, or Attorney General during this timeframe.
Therefore, Option 2 (Chief Justice of India) is the correct answer.
The first ‘Lokayukta’ was established in which of the following States?
Detailed Explanation:
Maharashtra established the first Lokayukta in India in 1971 under the leadership of Chief Minister V.P. Naik, following the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission (1966).
The institution was created to address complaints of corruption and maladministration against public servants. Other states like Odisha (1983), Kerala (1999), and Punjab (1996) established their Lokayuktas much later.
Therefore, Maharashtra being the pioneer state, Option 3 is the correct answer.
Judicial process in India is based on
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Constitution (Article 21) explicitly adopts "procedure established by law" rather than the "due process of law" model used in the US. This means any law passed by Parliament defining procedure for deprivation of life/liberty is valid, provided it follows constitutional provisions.
The judicial process thus rests on three pillars: the Constitution (supreme law), procedure established by law (Article 21), and conventions (judicial practices and precedents). Options 1, 2, and 4 are all partially correct, but none alone captures the complete basis.
Therefore, multiple statements (1, 3, and 4) are correct, making Option 5 the correct answer.
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Article 300 of the Indian Constitution deals with
Detailed Explanation:
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution explicitly deals with suits and proceedings by or against the Government of India and State Governments, specifying legal capacity and procedural requirements.
Government contracts fall under Article 299, Attorney General under Articles 76 and 165, and restrictions on trade and commerce under Articles 301-307 (Part XIII).
Therefore, Article 300 specifically addresses suits and proceedings, making Option 1 the correct answer.
Which of the following is a Parliamentary Committee relating to delegation of power to make rules and regulations to the Executive?
Detailed Explanation:
The Committee on Subordinate Legislation is a Parliamentary standing committee that examines rules, regulations, and bye-laws framed by the Executive under powers delegated by Parliament through parent Acts.
The other options—Executive Legislation, Administrative Legislation, and Delegated Legislation—are not official names of any Parliamentary committee in India.
Therefore, the Committee on Subordinate Legislation monitors delegated rule-making, making Option 2 the correct answer.
The split system in the Indian administration relates to
Detailed Explanation:
The Split System was introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861, separating policy formulation (reserved for the Governor-General and Executive Council) from policy implementation (handled by departments headed by Indian members).
This system marked the beginning of decentralization in British Indian administration, allowing controlled Indian participation in executive functions while retaining British control over legislative and policy decisions.
Therefore, the Split System relates to Policy/Implementation division, making Option 3 the correct answer.
The members of a State Legislative Council are not chosen by which of the following categories of persons?
Detailed Explanation:
State Legislative Council members are elected/nominated under Article 171(3) through: (a) MLAs, (b) local bodies (municipalities/panchayats), (c) teachers, (d) graduates, (e) Governor's nominees.
Industrialists have no designated constituency or quota—they may contest only if they qualify as graduates/teachers or are nominated by the Governor for special knowledge, not as a separate category.
Therefore, industrialists as a distinct category do not choose Council members, making Option 4 the correct answer.
In which year was the ‘National Extension Service’ launched?
Detailed Explanation:
The National Extension Service (NES) was launched on 2 October 1953 as India's first comprehensive rural development program, aiming to improve agriculture, health, education, and sanitation in villages through community participation.
It preceded the Community Development Programme (CDP) expansion and laid the foundation for subsequent rural development initiatives in independent India.
Therefore, 1953 is the correct year, making Option 1 the correct answer.
How many (number) ‘Demands for Grants’ are put before the Parliament as a part of the Annual Budget in pursuance to Article 113 of the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 113 of the Constitution mandates that Demands for Grants be presented to the Lok Sabha for all ministries/departments. The number varies annually based on government structure and ministries.
In Union Budget 2024-25, 109 Demands for Grants were presented, while in 2023-24, there were 103. The count fluctuates with creation/merger/reorganization of ministries and departments.
Therefore, no single fixed number exists, making Option 5 (None of the above/More than one of the above) the correct answer.
Which of the following is not a part of the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
The Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G) lists 29 subjects assigned to Panchayats for rural local self-governance, added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
Libraries, Fuel and Fodder, and Technical Training are entries 18, 14, and 17 respectively in the Eleventh Schedule. Rural Sports does not appear anywhere in this Schedule.
Therefore, Rural Sports is not part of the Eleventh Schedule, making Option 3 the correct answer.
Which agro climatic region of Bihar has the highest number of districts?
Detailed Explanation:
Bihar's agro-climatic zones are divided into three regions: North West Alluvial Plains (9 districts), North East Alluvial Plains (11 districts), and South Bihar Alluvial Plains (18 districts).
The North East region includes districts like Saharsa, Madhepura, Supaul, Araria, Kishanganj, Purnia, Katihar, Khagaria, Bhagalpur, Banka, and Munger—covering areas along the Kosi and Mahananda river basins.
Therefore, the North East agro-climatic region has the highest number of districts (11), making Option 1 the correct answer.
Brahmayoni Hill is located in which district of Bihar?
Detailed Explanation:
Brahmayoni Hill is a significant archaeological and religious site located in the Gaya district of Bihar, known for ancient rock-cut inscriptions and Buddhist heritage.
The hill features Mauryan-era inscriptions and caves, making it an important historical landmark in the region closely associated with Bodh Gaya and surrounding Buddhist sites.
Therefore, Brahmayoni Hill is located in Gaya district, making Option 1 the correct answer.
Which is the first Ramsar Site in Bihar?
Detailed Explanation:
Kanwar Lake (Kabar Tal) in Begusarai district became Bihar's first Ramsar Site in August 2020, recognized as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
It is Asia's largest oxbow lake and a critical habitat for migratory birds. Kaimur Range and Rajgir Hill are terrestrial features, while Kharagpur Lake is not a designated Ramsar Site.
Therefore, Kanwar Lake is Bihar's first Ramsar Site, making Option 3 the correct answer.
The rivers Damodar, Koel and Subarnarekha originate from which of the following?
Detailed Explanation:
The Damodar, Koel, and Subarnarekha rivers originate from the Chota Nagpur Plateau in eastern India, covering parts of Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh. This ancient plateau is a major watershed for several east-flowing rivers.
The Deccan Plateau is in peninsular India (south of Narmada), the Central Highland lies between Aravalli and Vindhya ranges, and the Meghalaya Plateau is in the northeast—none are the source of these three rivers.
Therefore, Chota Nagpur Plateau being the origin, Option 3 is the correct answer.
The confluence of the rivers Son and Ganga is located in which district of Bihar?
Detailed Explanation:
The Son River confluences with the Ganga River near Digha Ghat in Patna district, Bihar. This confluence site is historically and geographically significant.
Buxar, Bhojpur, and Nalanda districts do not host this specific river confluence point.
Therefore, the Son-Ganga confluence is in Patna, making Option 2 the correct answer.
Which district of Bihar has mica deposits?
Detailed Explanation:
Bihar's mica belt spans across Nawada, Gaya, Jamui, and parts of Rohtas districts, making it one of India's largest mica-producing regions.
Since multiple districts (Gaya and Rohtas) from the given options contain significant mica deposits, neither can be exclusively correct.
Therefore, more than one district has mica deposits, making Option 5 the correct answer.
Combustion of underground coal occurs in the State of
Detailed Explanation:
Jharkhand has the highest incidence of underground coal fire zones in India, particularly in the Jharia coalfield (Dhanbad district), which has been burning for over 100 years due to spontaneous combustion and uncontrolled mining.
West Bengal's Raniganj, Bihar's limited coal areas, and Odisha's coalfields also experience some fires, but none match Jharkhand's scale and severity of underground combustion.
Therefore, Jharkhand has the most extensive underground coal combustion, making Option 3 the correct answer.
Which of the following statements are concerned with eskers and drumlins?
- Eskers are ridges of crudely bedded gravels and sands.
- Drumlins are constituted mostly of boulder and clay.
- Basket of eggs topography is the characteristic of terrains with eskers
- While eskers are built by glacier streams, drumlins result from glacier action.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Eskers are sinuous ridges formed by glacial meltwater streams, composed of crudely bedded gravels and sands (Statement 1 correct). Drumlins are streamlined hills formed by direct glacial action, consisting mainly of boulder clay/till (Statement 2 correct). Statement 4 correctly distinguishes their formation: eskers by subglacial streams, drumlins by moving ice.
Statement 3 is incorrect: "Basket of eggs topography" characterizes terrain with drumlins, not eskers. Drumlin fields resemble baskets of eggs when viewed from above due to their oval, clustered appearance.
Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct, making Option 2 the correct answer.
Pattiseema Project is associated with the integration of which of the following rivers?
Detailed Explanation:
The Pattiseema Lift Irrigation Project (also known as Polavaram-Pattiseema Link) was launched in 2015 to divert 80 TMC of surplus Godavari water into the Krishna delta through a 24-km canal and lift infrastructure near Polavaram in Andhra Pradesh.
It addresses water scarcity in drought-prone Krishna basin districts and supports irrigation in the delta region; the other river pairs listed are not connected by this project.
Therefore, Pattiseema integrates Krishna and Godavari, making Option 2 the correct answer.
What is the most famous feature of Chiria located in West Singhbhum?
Detailed Explanation:
Chiria in West Singhbhum district, Jharkhand is renowned for its massive iron ore deposits, ranking among India's largest reserves with high-grade hematite ore exceeding 2 billion tonnes.
The region has no major dam, bird sanctuary, or national park; mining operations dominate the landscape and economy.
Therefore, iron ore mining is the most famous feature, making Option 1 the correct answer.
67th BPSC Prelims 2022 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
General Science
29 Qs (19.3%)Modern History
27 Qs (18%)Current Affairs
27 Qs (18%)Bihar Special
17 Qs (11.3%)Indian Polity
13 Qs (8.7%)General Mental Ability
10 Qs (6.7%)Indian Geography
9 Qs (6%)World Geography
7 Qs (4.7%)Ancient History
4 Qs (2.7%)Medieval History
3 Qs (2%)Indian Economy
3 Qs (2%)Indian Art & Culture
1 Qs (0.7%)67th BPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in 67th BPSC Prelims 2022?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for 67th BPSC Prelims 2022?
- General Science: 29 questions (19.3%)
- Modern History: 27 questions (18%)
- Current Affairs: 27 questions (18%)
- Bihar Special: 17 questions (11.3%)
- Indian Polity: 13 questions (8.7%)
- General Mental Ability: 10 questions (6.7%)
- Indian Geography: 9 questions (6%)
- World Geography: 7 questions (4.7%)
- Ancient History: 4 questions (2.7%)
- Medieval History: 3 questions (2%)
- Indian Economy: 3 questions (2%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 1 questions (0.7%)