67th BPSC Prelims 2022
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 13 solved 67th BPSC Prelims 2022 Indian Polity questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
According to the 15th Finance Commission’s recommendations, how much share will Bihar receive in divisible pool of Central taxes from 2021-26?
Detailed Explanation:
The 15th Finance Commission (2021-26) allocated Bihar 10.052% of the total divisible pool of Central taxes. This translates to 4.12% when considering Bihar's share in the overall distribution framework recommended by the Commission.
The Commission increased Bihar's allocation compared to the 14th FC, recognizing the state's fiscal needs, population, and developmental backwardness.
Therefore, Bihar receives 4.12% share, making Option 1 the correct answer.
With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements
- The Finance Commission is a statutory body
- The Finance Commission was set up under Article 280 of the Constitution
- The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only advisory in nature.
- The first Finance Commission was set up in 1950.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body (not statutory), established under Article 280 to recommend distribution of tax revenues between Centre and States.
- Statement 1 is Incorrect: Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280, not a statutory body created by an Act of Parliament.
- Statement 2 is Correct: Article 280 of the Constitution mandates the establishment of the Finance Commission every five years.
- Statement 3 is Correct: Recommendations are advisory in nature; the President tables them before Parliament with an action-taken report.
- Statement 4 is Incorrect: The first Finance Commission was constituted in November 1951 under Chairman K.C. Neogy, not in 1950.
- Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option 3 the correct answer.
Match List – I with List – II
| List – I | List – II |
|---|---|
| a. Sarkaria | 1. To Review the Commission Methodology for Measurement of Poverty |
| b. C. Rangarajan | 2. Infrastructure Committee Financing |
| c. Parekh | 3. Central State Committee Relationship |
| d. Narasimham | 4. Banking Sector Committee Reforms |
Detailed Explanation:
Sarkaria Commission (1983) examined Centre-State relations and federalism; C. Rangarajan Committee (2012) reviewed poverty measurement methodology; Deepak Parekh Committee (1996) addressed infrastructure financing; Narasimham Committee (1991, 1998) recommended banking sector reforms.
Option 2 incorrectly matches Sarkaria with Infrastructure; Option 3 swaps all assignments; Option 4 reverses major pairings—all factually wrong.
Therefore, matching a→3, b→1, c→2, d→4 makes Option 1 the correct answer.
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Who among the following is not a part of the National Development Council?
Detailed Explanation:
The National Development Council (NDC) comprised the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all states, and members of the Planning Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog).
The Chairman of the Finance Commission was never a member of the NDC, as the Finance Commission is an independent constitutional body under Article 280. The Secretary of NITI Aayog and the Secretary of Ministry of Planning also do not hold membership—only the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog participates.
Therefore, more than one option (1, 2, and 4) are not part of NDC, making Option 5 the correct answer.
Who among the following is not a member of the 15th Finance Commission?
Detailed Explanation:
The 15th Finance Commission was constituted in November 2017 with N.K. Singh as Chairman and four members: Shaktikanta Das (later replaced by Ajay Narayan Jha), Anoop Singh, Ashok Kumar Lahiri, and Ramesh Chand.
Sudipto Mundle was a member of the 14th Finance Commission (2013–15), not the 15th Finance Commission.
Therefore, Sudipto Mundle was not part of the 15th Finance Commission, making Option 2 the correct answer.
Which of the following posts was held by A. S. Anand in late 1990’s?
Detailed Explanation:
A. S. Anand served as the 26th Chief Justice of India from October 10, 1998 to October 31, 2001, covering the late 1990s period mentioned in the question.
He was not appointed as Comptroller and Auditor General, Chief Vigilance Commissioner, or Attorney General during this timeframe.
Therefore, Option 2 (Chief Justice of India) is the correct answer.
The first ‘Lokayukta’ was established in which of the following States?
Detailed Explanation:
Maharashtra established the first Lokayukta in India in 1971 under the leadership of Chief Minister V.P. Naik, following the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission (1966).
The institution was created to address complaints of corruption and maladministration against public servants. Other states like Odisha (1983), Kerala (1999), and Punjab (1996) established their Lokayuktas much later.
Therefore, Maharashtra being the pioneer state, Option 3 is the correct answer.
Judicial process in India is based on
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Constitution (Article 21) explicitly adopts "procedure established by law" rather than the "due process of law" model used in the US. This means any law passed by Parliament defining procedure for deprivation of life/liberty is valid, provided it follows constitutional provisions.
The judicial process thus rests on three pillars: the Constitution (supreme law), procedure established by law (Article 21), and conventions (judicial practices and precedents). Options 1, 2, and 4 are all partially correct, but none alone captures the complete basis.
Therefore, multiple statements (1, 3, and 4) are correct, making Option 5 the correct answer.
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution deals with
Detailed Explanation:
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution explicitly deals with suits and proceedings by or against the Government of India and State Governments, specifying legal capacity and procedural requirements.
Government contracts fall under Article 299, Attorney General under Articles 76 and 165, and restrictions on trade and commerce under Articles 301-307 (Part XIII).
Therefore, Article 300 specifically addresses suits and proceedings, making Option 1 the correct answer.
Which of the following is a Parliamentary Committee relating to delegation of power to make rules and regulations to the Executive?
Detailed Explanation:
The Committee on Subordinate Legislation is a Parliamentary standing committee that examines rules, regulations, and bye-laws framed by the Executive under powers delegated by Parliament through parent Acts.
The other options—Executive Legislation, Administrative Legislation, and Delegated Legislation—are not official names of any Parliamentary committee in India.
Therefore, the Committee on Subordinate Legislation monitors delegated rule-making, making Option 2 the correct answer.
The members of a State Legislative Council are not chosen by which of the following categories of persons?
Detailed Explanation:
State Legislative Council members are elected/nominated under Article 171(3) through: (a) MLAs, (b) local bodies (municipalities/panchayats), (c) teachers, (d) graduates, (e) Governor's nominees.
Industrialists have no designated constituency or quota—they may contest only if they qualify as graduates/teachers or are nominated by the Governor for special knowledge, not as a separate category.
Therefore, industrialists as a distinct category do not choose Council members, making Option 4 the correct answer.
How many (number) ‘Demands for Grants’ are put before the Parliament as a part of the Annual Budget in pursuance to Article 113 of the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 113 of the Constitution mandates that Demands for Grants be presented to the Lok Sabha for all ministries/departments. The number varies annually based on government structure and ministries.
In Union Budget 2024-25, 109 Demands for Grants were presented, while in 2023-24, there were 103. The count fluctuates with creation/merger/reorganization of ministries and departments.
Therefore, no single fixed number exists, making Option 5 (None of the above/More than one of the above) the correct answer.
Which of the following is not a part of the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
The Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G) lists 29 subjects assigned to Panchayats for rural local self-governance, added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992.
Libraries, Fuel and Fodder, and Technical Training are entries 18, 14, and 17 respectively in the Eleventh Schedule. Rural Sports does not appear anywhere in this Schedule.
Therefore, Rural Sports is not part of the Eleventh Schedule, making Option 3 the correct answer.
67th BPSC Prelims 2022 - Indian Polity Chapter-wise Distribution
Constitutional Bodies
4 Qs (30.8%)Supreme Court
2 Qs (15.4%)Parliament
2 Qs (15.4%)State Government
1 Qs (7.7%)Fundamental Rights
1 Qs (7.7%)Non-Constitutional Bodies
1 Qs (7.7%)Committees and Commissions
1 Qs (7.7%)Local Government
1 Qs (7.7%)67th BPSC Prelims 2022 - Indian Polity Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Polity questions were asked in 67th BPSC Prelims 2022?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Polity in 67th BPSC Prelims 2022?
- Constitutional Bodies: 4 questions (30.8%)
- Supreme Court: 2 questions (15.4%)
- Parliament: 2 questions (15.4%)
- State Government: 1 questions (7.7%)
- Fundamental Rights: 1 questions (7.7%)
- Non-Constitutional Bodies: 1 questions (7.7%)
- Committees and Commissions: 1 questions (7.7%)
- Local Government: 1 questions (7.7%)