UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Polity in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Separation of powers
The doctrine of Separation of Powers, which divides governmental authority among the legislature, executive, and judiciary, constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy. This separation prevents concentration of power in any single branch and ensures that each organ acts as a check and balance on the others, thereby protecting individual rights and freedoms from arbitrary state action.
📝 Short Notes: Separation of Powers
- Basic Principle: Division of governmental powers among three independent organs—Legislature (makes laws), Executive (implements laws), and Judiciary (interprets laws).
- Origin: Propounded by French philosopher Montesquieu in his work 'The Spirit of Laws' (1748) as essential for political liberty.
- Indian Context: India follows a system of checks and balances rather than strict separation. While functional separation exists, there is considerable overlap (e.g., Council of Ministers is part of both legislature and executive).
- Constitutional Provisions: Articles 50 (separation of judiciary from executive), 53 (executive power vested in President), 74 (Council of Ministers to aid President), and 121/211 (restrictions on discussing judicial conduct in legislature).
- Checks and Balances: Legislature controls executive through no-confidence motions and financial control; Judiciary reviews executive actions and legislative enactments through judicial review; Executive appoints judges and implements court decisions.
- Why Best Safeguard: Prevents tyranny by ensuring no single organ becomes all-powerful; protects individual liberty by distributing authority; enables accountability through mutual oversight.
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Article 14
A legislation that confers unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power on the executive violates Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees Equality Before Law and Equal Protection of Laws. Such arbitrary power violates the principle of fairness and reasonableness, as it allows discriminatory application of law without any guiding principles.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
• Article 28 relates to freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in educational institutions.
• Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies and empowers citizens to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights.
• Article 44 is a Directive Principle of State Policy that mandates the State to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens.
📝 Short Notes: Article 14 and Doctrine of Arbitrariness
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Article 14 | Guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to all persons within the territory of India |
| Equality Before Law | Negative concept - absence of special privileges; British origin (Rule of Law by Dicey) |
| Equal Protection of Laws | Positive concept - equal treatment in similar circumstances; American origin (14th Amendment) |
| Doctrine of Arbitrariness | Arbitrary power violates Article 14 as it negates equality. Unguided discretion = legal despotism |
| Reasonable Classification | Permitted if based on intelligible differentia having rational nexus with object sought |
| Key Cases | E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974) - Arbitrariness is antithesis of equality; Maneka Gandhi case (1978) |
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
- As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
- In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
India adopted the parliamentary system from the British model but introduced significant modifications. The most crucial difference is that while the British Parliament enjoys absolute sovereignty, the Indian Parliament operates within constitutional limits, making the Constitution supreme rather than Parliament.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The British Parliament is supreme and sovereign with unlimited legislative powers, whereas in India, Parliament's legislative authority is limited by the Constitution. The judiciary can strike down Parliamentary laws if they violate constitutional provisions, establishing the supremacy of the Constitution over Parliament.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: In India, matters concerning the constitutionality of Parliamentary Acts or Constitutional Amendments are referred to the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court. This judicial review mechanism, absent in the British system, ensures that all legislation conforms to constitutional principles and basic structure.
📝 Short Notes: Parliamentary Democracy — British vs Indian Model
| Feature | British Model | Indian Model |
|---|---|---|
| Sovereignty | Parliamentary Sovereignty — Parliament is supreme | Constitutional Sovereignty — Constitution is supreme |
| Legislative Power | Unlimited; Parliament can make/unmake any law | Limited by Constitution; subject to judicial review |
| Judicial Review | No judicial review of Parliamentary legislation | Supreme Court can review and strike down unconstitutional laws |
| Written Constitution | Unwritten/uncodified constitution | Written and supreme Constitution |
| Constitutional Amendments | Simple legislative process; no special procedure | Special procedure under Article 368; subject to Basic Structure doctrine |
| Federal Structure | Unitary system | Federal system with distribution of powers |
- Basic Structure Doctrine: Established in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), it limits Parliament's power to amend the Constitution by protecting its basic features
- Constitution Bench: Comprises at least 5 Supreme Court judges; hears matters involving substantial questions of constitutional interpretation
- Article 13: Declares laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void, establishing judicial review
- Rule of Law: Both models follow rule of law, but its application differs due to constitutional supremacy in India
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Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
This option captures the four essential elements of a state as recognized in political science: (1) Population (a community of persons), (2) Territory (definite geographical area), (3) Government (organized system of governance), and (4) Sovereignty (independence from external control). These are the classical elements that distinguish a state from other political entities.
Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 2 focuses on functions like maintaining law and order and protecting natural rights, which are purposes of the state but not part of its core definition.
• Option 3 emphasizes culture and tradition, which are not essential defining characteristics of a state in political theory.
• Option 4 mentions specific institutional features (executive responsible to central authority, independent judiciary) which are characteristics of particular types of governments, not universal elements of all states.
📝 Short Notes: Four Essential Elements of a State
| Element | Description |
|---|---|
| 1. Population | A community of persons; no minimum or maximum number specified; necessary for the existence of a state |
| 2. Territory | Defined geographical area with recognized boundaries; includes land, water, and airspace |
| 3. Government | Organized political authority that makes and enforces laws; essential for maintaining order |
| 4. Sovereignty | Supreme authority within the territory; independence from external control (internal and external sovereignty) |
- Internal Sovereignty: Supreme authority of the state over all individuals and associations within its territory
- External Sovereignty: Independence from control by other states in international relations
- These four elements were formalized in the Montevideo Convention (1933) on the Rights and Duties of States
- A state may have recognition from other states, but recognition is not an essential element of statehood
With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:
- Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
- A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 Only
This question tests the understanding of judicial provisions under the Indian Constitution. Statement 1 is correct as per Article 128, while Statement 2 is incorrect because High Courts lack an explicit constitutional provision equivalent to Article 137 that grants review powers to the Supreme Court.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 128 empowers the Chief Justice of India to request any retired judge of the Supreme Court (or a qualified retired High Court judge) to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge, with the prior consent of the President of India.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While High Courts do possess the power to review their own judgments, this power is not equivalent to that of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court's review power is explicitly granted under Article 137, whereas High Courts derive their review power from their inherent powers as Courts of Record under Article 215, not from an explicit constitutional provision. The scope and source of review powers differ between the two.
📝 Short Notes: Judicial Powers - Review and Ad-hoc Judges
| Provision | Article | Key Points |
|---|---|---|
| Ad-hoc Judges of Supreme Court | Article 128 | • CJI can request retired SC judges or qualified retired HC judges to sit as SC judges • Requires prior consent of the President • Such judges have all powers of a sitting SC judge |
| Review Power - Supreme Court | Article 137 | • Explicit constitutional provision for review • SC can review any judgment or order made by it • Subject to provisions of law and rules made under Article 145 |
| Review Power - High Courts | Article 215 | • No explicit constitutional provision like Article 137 • Derives from inherent powers as Court of Record • Limited in scope compared to Supreme Court • Based on CPC provisions and inherent powers |
| Courts of Record | Articles 129 & 215 | • Both SC and HC are Courts of Record • Can punish for contempt • Their records have evidentiary value |
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — A Sovereign Democratic Republic
The Constitution of India came into effect on 26th January 1950, and the original Preamble (adopted in 1949) described India as a "Sovereign Democratic Republic." The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were added later through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, during the Emergency period. Therefore, on 26th January 1950, India's constitutional status was precisely "A Sovereign Democratic Republic" without the terms Socialist and Secular.
📝 Short Notes: Evolution of the Preamble
| Component | Original Preamble (1950) | After 42nd Amendment (1976) |
|---|---|---|
| Constitutional Status | Sovereign Democratic Republic | Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic |
| Date of Adoption | 26th November 1949 | 18th December 1976 (Amendment) |
| Date of Effect | 26th January 1950 | 3rd January 1977 |
| Key Terms Added | — | Socialist, Secular, and Integrity |
| Context | Post-Independence Constitution framing | Emergency period under Indira Gandhi |
- The Preamble declares India as a Union of States, not a federation in the traditional sense.
- "Sovereign" means India is free from external control and has supreme authority.
- "Democratic" signifies that the government derives its authority from the will of the people.
- "Republic" indicates that the head of state is elected, not hereditary.
- The 42nd Amendment also changed "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation."
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
- A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
- A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 Only
India has a unified system of citizenship and domicile, unlike federal systems that recognize state-level domiciles. However, any Indian citizen (whether by birth or naturalization) can become the President, and citizenship can be deprived under specific circumstances like fraud or disloyalty.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 5 of the Constitution mentions 'domicile in the territory of India,' and the Supreme Court in Pradeep Jain v. Union of India (1984) ruled that India has only one domicile—the domicile of India—and not separate state domiciles. Similarly, there is only one citizenship for the entire country.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 58 allows any citizen of India to be eligible for the office of President, whether citizen by birth or by naturalization. Unlike the USA, which requires a natural-born citizen for the Presidency, India does not make this distinction.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, the Government can deprive a person of citizenship if it was obtained by fraud, false representation, or concealment of material facts, or if the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
📝 Short Notes: Citizenship in India
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Provisions | Articles 5-11 deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution. Part II of the Constitution. |
| Single Citizenship | India follows single citizenship (Union citizenship) unlike the USA which has dual citizenship (federal and state). |
| Domicile | Only one domicile—domicile of India. No separate state domiciles recognized (Pradeep Jain v. Union of India, 1984). |
| Eligibility for President | Article 58: Any citizen of India (by birth, descent, registration, or naturalization) can become President. No restriction to natural-born citizens. |
| Acquisition of Citizenship | By birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and incorporation of territory (Citizenship Act, 1955). |
| Loss of Citizenship | By renunciation, termination, and deprivation. Deprivation possible if obtained by fraud or due to disloyalty (Section 10, Citizenship Act). |
| Citizenship Amendment | Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides citizenship to persecuted minorities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh (excluding Muslims). |
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
An independent judiciary is a defining feature of federalism as it acts as an impartial arbiter to resolve disputes between the Union and States regarding the division of powers and interpretation of the Constitution. In a federal system, the judiciary ensures that both levels of government operate within their constitutional limits, maintaining the federal balance.
Let's evaluate each option:
✅ Option 1 – Correct: An independent judiciary is essential to federalism as it resolves Centre-State disputes and protects the constitutional distribution of powers, serving as the guardian of the federal structure.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Having elected representatives from constituent units in the Union Legislature is common in both federal and unitary systems with devolved powers; it is not exclusively a federal feature.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: The presence of regional party representatives in the Union Cabinet is a political phenomenon, not a constitutional feature that defines federalism.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: While Fundamental Rights enforceable by courts are crucial for democracy and rule of law, they exist in both federal and unitary states and are not exclusive indicators of federalism.
📝 Short Notes: Essential Features of Federalism
- Dual Polity: Distribution of powers between the Centre and States with each having distinct spheres of authority.
- Written Constitution: A supreme written constitution that delineates powers and cannot be easily amended unilaterally.
- Independent Judiciary: An impartial judiciary to interpret the Constitution and adjudicate disputes between the Centre and States.
- Rigid Constitution: Amendment process requiring special procedures to protect the federal structure from arbitrary changes.
- Bicameralism: A bicameral legislature where the upper house represents constituent units (like Rajya Sabha representing States).
- Supremacy of Constitution: Both levels of government derive authority from and are bound by the Constitution.
‘Right to privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Article 21
The right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. In the landmark judgment K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India (2017), a 9-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously declared that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the fundamental right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21. This right is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution but has been read into Article 21 through judicial interpretation.
📝 Short Notes: Right to Privacy
- Constitutional Basis: Right to privacy is not explicitly mentioned but is protected under Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty).
- K.S. Puttaswamy Case (2017): 9-judge bench unanimously held privacy as a fundamental right intrinsic to Article 21 and part of freedoms under Part III.
- Components: Includes informational privacy, bodily privacy, decisional privacy, and privacy of communication.
- Earlier Judgments: Privacy was recognized in Kharak Singh case (1964) and M.P. Sharma case (1954) denied it as a fundamental right; R. Rajagopal case (1994) recognized it partially.
- Impact: This judgment overruled the 8-judge bench decisions in M.P. Sharma and Kharak Singh cases and formed the constitutional basis for data protection laws.
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Legal right available to any person
The Right to Property is currently a constitutional (legal) right available to any person (not just citizens) under Article 300-A. It was a Fundamental Right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 until the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 removed it from Part III and placed it under Part XII as Article 300-A, which states: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law."
📝 Short Notes: Right to Property — Constitutional Evolution
| Period | Status | Constitutional Provision | Key Features |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1950-1978 | Fundamental Right | Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 | • Available to citizens only • Right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property • Compensation mandatory for acquisition |
| After 1978 | Legal/Constitutional Right | Article 300-A (Part XII) | • Available to any person (citizens and non-citizens) • Deprivation only by authority of law • No mandatory compensation clause |
- 44th Amendment Act, 1978: Removed Articles 19(1)(f) and 31; inserted Article 300-A
- Article 300-A: "No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law"
- Significance: Right to property is still protected but not a Fundamental Right; cannot be enforced through Article 32
- Compensation: Government decides quantum; not judicially reviewable on amount
- Applicability: Extends to all persons including foreigners and legal entities
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
- Preamble
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Fundamental Duties
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) encompasses a wide range of civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights. Beyond Fundamental Rights, the Indian Constitution reflects UDHR principles in the Preamble (guaranteeing justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity), Directive Principles of State Policy (ensuring socio-economic rights and welfare), and Fundamental Duties (emphasizing individual responsibilities towards the community and society).
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Preamble embodies the ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, which are core principles of the UDHR.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Directive Principles of State Policy aim at ensuring social and economic justice, right to work, education, and public assistance, mirroring the economic and social rights enshrined in the UDHR.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Fundamental Duties reflect the individual's responsibilities towards society and the community, consistent with Article 29 of the UDHR which emphasizes duties to the community.
📝 Short Notes: Universal Declaration of Human Rights and Indian Constitution
- UDHR (1948): Adopted by the UN General Assembly on December 10, 1948, it is a milestone document proclaiming the inalienable rights of all human beings.
- Preamble Connection: The Preamble's commitment to justice (social, economic, political), liberty (of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship), equality (of status and opportunity), and fraternity reflects UDHR Articles 1-2 on dignity and equality.
- Directive Principles: Articles 38-51 incorporate socio-economic rights similar to UDHR Articles 22-27, including right to work, education, adequate standard of living, and social security.
- Fundamental Duties: Added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), Article 51A lists 11 duties that complement UDHR Article 29, which states that everyone has duties to the community.
- Holistic Approach: While Fundamental Rights (Part III) directly correspond to civil and political rights in UDHR, the Preamble, DPSPs, and Fundamental Duties together create a comprehensive human rights framework.
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — amending the Constitution
The Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the matter of constitutional amendments under Article 368. For any constitutional amendment to be valid, it must be passed by a special majority (majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting) in both Houses of Parliament. In contrast, the Rajya Sabha has limited or no powers in matters of creating All India Services (only recommendatory role), removal of government (only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion), and making cut motions (exclusively a Lok Sabha privilege on money matters).
📝 Short Notes: Powers of Rajya Sabha vs Lok Sabha
| Matter | Rajya Sabha Powers | Lok Sabha Powers |
|---|---|---|
| Constitutional Amendments (Article 368) | Equal powers - must pass with special majority | Equal powers - must pass with special majority |
| Money Bills (Article 109) | Can only recommend amendments (14 days); Lok Sabha may accept or reject | Exclusive power to originate; final authority |
| Removal of Government (No-confidence Motion) | Cannot move no-confidence motion | Can move and pass no-confidence motion |
| Cut Motions (Budget) | Cannot move cut motions | Exclusive right to move cut motions |
| Creating All India Services (Article 312) | Must pass resolution by 2/3rd majority supporting creation | Parliament then creates the service by law |
| Impeachment of President | Equal powers - must pass with special majority | Equal powers - either House can initiate |
| Ordinary Bills | Equal powers (except Money Bills) | Equal powers (except Money Bills) |
With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- They shall be enforceable by courts.
- They shall not be enforceable by any court.
- The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 2 and 3 only
Part IV of the Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSs), which are non-justiciable guidelines for governance. According to Article 37, these principles are not enforceable by any court but are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply them while making laws.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: DPSPs are explicitly non-justiciable and cannot be enforced by courts under Article 37.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 37 clearly states that provisions in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 37 mandates that these principles are fundamental in governance and must guide the State in making laws to establish social and economic democracy.
📝 Short Notes: Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
- Nature: Non-justiciable rights (cannot be enforced by courts) but fundamental in governance (Article 37)
- Purpose: To establish social and economic democracy; guide State policy and law-making
- Classification: Socialistic principles (Articles 38-41), Gandhian principles (Articles 40, 43, 46-48), Liberal-intellectual principles (Articles 44, 45, 49-51)
- Contrast with Fundamental Rights: Part III rights are justiciable and enforceable; DPSPs are non-justiciable but supplementary
- Constitutional Status: Added by the Constituent Assembly to balance individual rights with social welfare goals
- Judicial Interpretation: Supreme Court has held that DPSPs and Fundamental Rights are complementary; both must be harmoniously interpreted (Minerva Mills case)
Consider the following statements:
- According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
- According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Neither 1 nor 2
Both statements contain inaccuracies regarding constitutional and statutory provisions. Statement 1 incorrectly assumes that any person eligible to vote (18+ years) can become a minister, while the Constitution requires ministers to meet the qualifications for membership of the State Legislature (25 years for Assembly, 30 for Council). Statement 2 incorrectly describes the disqualification as permanent, whereas it is actually for six years after release from prison.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 164(4) allows a non-member to be a minister for six months, but Article 173 requires the person to be qualified for membership of the State Legislature (minimum age 25 for Assembly, 30 for Council), not just eligible to vote (18 years).
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Section 8(3) of RPA 1951 disqualifies a person convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years for a period of six years after release, not permanently.
📝 Short Notes: Qualifications and Disqualifications for Ministers and Legislators
| Provision | Details |
|---|---|
| Article 164(4) | A minister who is not a member of the State Legislature for six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister |
| Article 173 - Qualifications | Member of Legislative Assembly: minimum 25 years Member of Legislative Council: minimum 30 years Must be a citizen of India and registered as a voter |
| Article 326 - Right to Vote | Minimum age: 18 years (61st Amendment, 1989) |
| Section 8(3) RPA 1951 | Conviction with imprisonment ≥2 years: disqualified from date of conviction + 6 years after release |
| Section 8(1) & 8(2) RPA 1951 | Conviction for specific electoral/communal offences: disqualified from date of conviction + 6 years after release |
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
- MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
- A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations
- MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next years
- The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 4 only
The MPLADS scheme focuses on creating durable community assets, mandates reservation of funds for SC/ST areas, and requires district-level inspection of works. Statement 3 is incorrect because MPLADS funds are non-lapsable and can be carried forward to subsequent years.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, and other community facilities.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: At least 15% of MPLADS entitlement must be allocated for SC population areas and 7.5% for ST population areas.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: MPLADS funds are non-lapsable; unused funds can be carried forward to subsequent years.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: The District Authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.