UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Economy Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Economy in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :
I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure. II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings. III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?
- Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
- Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
- Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 (Relationships 1 and 2 are correct)
Simple Explanation:
This question checks if you understand how the original Sagarmala connects to Sagarmala 2.0.
Base Facts:
- Statement I: Sagarmala = port-led growth through coastal infrastructure (launched 2015)
- Statement II: Real success shown — 118% growth in coastal shipping, 700% rise in inland waterway cargo, 9 Indian ports in global top 100
- Statement III: Sagarmala 2.0 = next phase, focused on smart ports, green shipping, and innovation (linked to Atmanirbhar Bharat & Viksit Bharat 2047)
Relationship 1 — Correct. Statement II gives real proof/numbers that Statement I's strategy actually worked. So II validates I.
Relationship 2 — Correct. Statement III is simply the next stage of Statement I — adding innovation and technology on top of the same port-led growth idea. It extends, doesn't replace.
Relationship 3 — Incorrect. Statement I does NOT contradict Statement III. The basic infrastructure (Statement I) is the foundation on which modern innovation (Statement III) is built. They work together, not against each other.
Memory Trick: Sagarmala 1.0 = Build the base. Sagarmala 2.0 = Build the future on that base. No conflict, only progression.
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?
- The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
- The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
- The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below :
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. It aligns with the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities and mandates:
- 4% reservation in government employment
- 5% reservation in higher education
- Legal duty on governments for non-discrimination and accessibility
Statement 2 — Correct. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015 by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD). It focuses on universal accessibility across three key domains:
- Built Infrastructure — barrier-free public buildings
- Transport Systems — accessible railways, airports, and roads
- Information & Communication Technology — accessible government websites and digital ecosystems
Statement 3 — Incorrect. NDFDC is indeed a Central Public Sector Undertaking registered as a not-for-profit company, but it was set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment — NOT the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Key Trick: This question tests precise factual details — year of enactment (2016 vs 2018) and ministry attribution (Social Justice vs Corporate Affairs).
Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?
- Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
- Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
- Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)
Select the answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Statement 1 — Incorrect.
RAD explicitly promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), which combine multi-cropping, rotational cropping, horticulture, livestock, fishery, and agro-forestry. Monoculture is contrary to the scheme's philosophy.
Statement 2 — Incorrect.
RAD targets rainfed areas — regions without assured irrigation. Expanding rice cultivation in already-irrigated regions falls entirely outside its mandate.
Statement 3 — Correct.
The core objective of RAD is precisely to enhance productivity and build climate resilience through IFS, diversifying income sources to protect farmers from droughts, floods, and crop failure.
Key Point: RAD under NMSA is fundamentally about diversification and resilience in water-scarce, rain-dependent farming zones — the opposite of monoculture or irrigated expansion.
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Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Statement I — Correct. Most low-producing indigenous cattle/buffalo are owned by small farmers, marginal farmers, and landless labourers. By improving the productivity of these animals, RGM directly helps uplift the rural poor.
Statement II — Correct. Launched in December 2014, RGM's purpose is to conserve and improve indigenous breeds of cattle and buffalo through scientific breeding and genetic upgradation — done in a holistic manner (covering breeding, health, nutrition).
Both statements describe two connected aspects of the same scheme — purpose (II) and impact (I).
Rashtriya Gokul Mission
| Feature | Detail |
|---|---|
| Launched | December 2014 |
| Ministry | Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying |
| Objective | Conservation and development of indigenous cattle & buffalo breeds |
| Method | Scientific breeding, genetic upgradation, artificial insemination |
| Key Components | Establishment of Gokul Grams (integrated cattle development centers) |
| Beneficiaries | Small farmers, marginal farmers, landless labourers |
| Related Scheme | Part of the broader National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development (NPBBDD) |
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4
The United States and Brazil are the world's two largest ethanol producers. However, the United States produces more ethanol than Brazil, while the two countries use different primary feedstocks for ethanol production.
❌ Statement I is Incorrect: The United States of America is the world's largest ethanol producer, producing more ethanol than Brazil.
✅ Statement II is Correct: The USA mainly uses corn (maize) as feedstock for ethanol production, whereas Brazil primarily uses sugarcane.
Short Notes: Ethanol Production
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Ethanol is a renewable biofuel produced through the fermentation of sugars and starches.
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The USA is the world's largest ethanol producer.
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Brazil is the world's second-largest ethanol producer.
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Corn (maize) is the principal feedstock in the USA.
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Sugarcane is the principal feedstock in Brazil.
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In India, ethanol is mainly produced from sugarcane molasses, sugarcane juice, and food grains.
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Ethanol blending helps reduce crude oil imports and greenhouse gas emissions.
A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1 (₹48,500 crores)
This question is based on the concept of Primary Deficit, which measures the fiscal deficit excluding interest payments on past borrowings.
✅ Statement I is Correct: Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crore (given)
✅ Interest Liabilities = ₹1,500 crore (given)
✅ Formula:
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
Calculation:
= ₹50,000 crore − ₹1,500 crore
= ₹48,500 crore
Note: The ₹10,000 crore non-debt creating capital receipts are already accounted for while calculating the fiscal deficit. Therefore, they are not used again in the calculation of primary deficit.
Short Notes: Fiscal Deficit and Primary Deficit
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Fiscal Deficit represents the government's total borrowing requirement.
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Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts (excluding borrowings).
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Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments.
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Primary Deficit indicates the current year's fiscal imbalance excluding past debt burden.
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A lower primary deficit suggests better fiscal discipline.
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If Primary Deficit is zero, borrowings are only sufficient to pay interest on previous loans.
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Non-debt capital receipts include disinvestment proceeds and loan recoveries.
Consider the following countries:
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 2 (Only three)
India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) has expanded internationally through partnerships with foreign payment networks and merchants. However, UPI-based international merchant payments are currently available only in selected countries.
✅ I. United Arab Emirates – Correct: UPI is accepted at select merchants in the UAE through partnerships facilitated by National Payments Corporation of India.
✅ II. France – Correct: France became one of the first European countries to accept UPI payments, including at locations such as the Eiffel Tower.
❌ III. Germany – Incorrect: UPI merchant payment acceptance has not been officially rolled out in Germany.
✅ IV. Singapore – Correct: UPI is operational in Singapore for cross-border payments and merchant transactions through linkage arrangements.
❌ V. Bangladesh – Incorrect: UPI merchant payment acceptance is not operational in Bangladesh.
Therefore, among the given countries, UAE, France, and Singapore are the three countries where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI.
Short Notes: UPI Internationalization
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UPI (Unified Payments Interface) was developed by National Payments Corporation of India.
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UPI enables instant real-time digital payments.
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International merchant payments are operational in countries such as UAE, Singapore, France, Bhutan, Nepal, Mauritius, and Sri Lanka.
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UPI helps reduce dependence on international card networks.
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Cross-border UPI services support tourism, remittances, and business transactions.
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UPI is one of the world's largest digital payment platforms.
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The system is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India and operated by NPCI.
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (I and III only)
The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development is the largest institution of the World Bank Group. It was originally established to support post-war reconstruction and now focuses on development financing.
✅ Statement I is Correct: IBRD provides loans, guarantees, risk-management products, and advisory services primarily to middle-income and creditworthy lower-income countries.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect: IBRD does not work alone to reduce poverty. It works along with other World Bank Group institutions such as:
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International Development Association> (IDA)
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International Finance Corporation> (IFC)
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Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency> (MIGA)
✅ Statement III is Correct: IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference to help rebuild Europe after World War II.
Short Notes: International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
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IBRD was established in 1944 under the Bretton Woods system.
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It is a key institution of the World Bank Group.
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Headquarters: Washington, D.C..
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Provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy countries.
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Funds development projects in infrastructure, education, health, and governance.
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Raises funds mainly through international capital markets.
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Its original objective was the reconstruction of Europe after World War II.
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores.
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (I, II and III)
This question is based on the formulas of Revenue Deficit, Fiscal Deficit, and Primary Deficit used in government budgeting.
✅ Statement I is Correct: Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts
= ₹80,000 crore − ₹60,000 crore
= ₹20,000 crore
✅ Statement II is Correct: Fiscal Deficit represents the government's total borrowing requirement.
Given Borrowings = ₹10,000 crore
Therefore, Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crore
✅ Statement III is Correct: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
= ₹10,000 crore − ₹6,000 crore
= ₹4,000 crore
Short Notes: Budget Deficits
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Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts
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Revenue deficit indicates that the government is unable to meet its day-to-day expenses from its regular income.
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Fiscal Deficit = Total Borrowings of the Government
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Fiscal deficit reflects the total gap between expenditure and receipts (excluding borrowings).
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Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
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Primary deficit shows the current year's fiscal imbalance excluding past debt obligations.
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A zero primary deficit means borrowings are only being used to pay interest on past loans.
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1 (I only)
RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) and NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) are electronic fund transfer systems operated by the Reserve Bank of India. The key difference lies in the method and speed of settlement.
✅ Statement I is Correct: RTGS transactions are settled individually and in real time, making them almost instantaneous. NEFT transactions are settled in batches, so there may be a slight delay.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect: As per RBI guidelines, banks cannot levy charges on inward transactions (receiving funds) under either RTGS or NEFT.
❌ Statement III is Incorrect: Both RTGS and NEFT are available 24×7×365, including weekends and holidays. Therefore, RTGS operating hours are no longer restricted.
Short Notes: RTGS vs NEFT
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RTGS stands for Real Time Gross Settlement.
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NEFT stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer.
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RTGS settles transactions individually and instantly.
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NEFT settles transactions in half-hourly batches on a continuous basis.
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Both systems are operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
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Both RTGS and NEFT are available 24×7×365.
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No charges are permitted on inward transactions under either system.
Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1 (I and II only)
India has witnessed a remarkable surge in stock market participation and derivatives trading in recent years. At the same time, investor protection and market regulation are actively handled by Securities and Exchange Board of India.
✅ Statement I is Correct: India accounts for a very large share of global equity options trading volume, making it one of the world's most active derivatives markets.
✅ Statement II is Correct: India's stock market capitalization grew rapidly and, during 2024, briefly surpassed that of Hong Kong, becoming one of the world's largest stock markets.
❌ Statement III is Incorrect: India has a dedicated regulator, Securities and Exchange Board of India>, which:
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Warns investors about the risks of derivatives and options trading.
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Regulates investment advisers and research analysts.
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Takes action against unregistered financial advisors and fraudulent entities.
Short Notes: India's Equity Options Market
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India is among the world's largest markets for equity derivatives trading.
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Equity options provide the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell an asset.
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High trading volumes do not necessarily indicate high profitability for retail investors.
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SEBI regulates stock exchanges, brokers, and investment advisers.
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The National Stock Exchange and Bombay Stock Exchange are India's major stock exchanges.
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India became one of the world's top stock markets by market capitalization in recent years.
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SEBI frequently issues advisories regarding the risks of speculative options trading.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1
When investing in a company, bondholders generally face lower risk than stockholders because bonds are debt instruments with fixed claims, while stocks represent ownership and carry higher uncertainty.
✅ Statement I is Correct: Bondholders are generally at lower risk because they receive fixed interest payments and have a higher claim on company assets than stockholders.
✅ Statement II is Correct: Bondholders are lenders (creditors) to the company, whereas stockholders (shareholders) are owners of the company.
✅ Statement III is Correct: In case of liquidation or bankruptcy, bondholders are repaid before stockholders, reducing their investment risk.
Why II and III explain I: Since bondholders are creditors and have priority in repayment, their chances of recovering money are higher than those of stockholders. Therefore, they are considered relatively less risky investors.
Short Notes: Bonds vs Stocks
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Bonds are debt instruments; investors act as lenders.
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Stocks (Shares) represent ownership in a company.
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Bondholders receive fixed interest payments.
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Stockholders receive returns through dividends and capital appreciation.
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In liquidation, creditors and bondholders are paid before shareholders.
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Bonds generally carry lower risk and lower returns.
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Stocks generally carry higher risk and higher return potential.
Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4 (I, II and III)
India is globally recognized as the leading producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric. The country's diverse agro-climatic conditions support the cultivation of numerous turmeric varieties across several states.
✅ Statement I is Correct: India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world, contributing a major share of global production and exports.
✅ Statement II is Correct: More than 30 varieties of turmeric are cultivated in India, including popular varieties such as Alleppey Finger, Salem, Rajapore, and Nizamabad.
✅ Statement III is Correct: Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu are among the major turmeric-producing states of India.
Short Notes: Turmeric Production in India
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India is the world's largest producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric.
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Turmeric is known as "Indian Saffron" due to its color and value.
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The scientific name of turmeric is Curcuma longa.
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Curcumin is the principal bioactive compound responsible for its medicinal properties.
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Major producing states include Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha.
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India grows more than 30 varieties of turmeric.
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Turmeric has applications in food, medicine, cosmetics, and traditional healthcare systems.
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 4
Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, only income from core agricultural operations is treated as agricultural income and exempt from tax. Allied activities such as poultry farming and wool rearing do not qualify for this exemption. Also, rural agricultural land is specifically excluded from the definition of a capital asset.
❌ Statement I is Incorrect: Income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming, dairy farming, wool rearing, and fisheries is generally taxable and is not treated as agricultural income.
✅ Statement II is Correct: Rural agricultural land is excluded from the definition of a capital asset under Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Therefore, its sale is generally not subject to capital gains tax.
❌ Statement II does not explain Statement I: Statement II deals with the tax treatment of rural agricultural land, whereas Statement I concerns the taxation of income from allied agricultural activities. The two are unrelated.
Short Notes: Agricultural Income and Rural Agricultural Land
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Agricultural income from cultivation of land is exempt from income tax under the Income-tax Act.
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Income from poultry farming, dairy farming, fisheries, and wool rearing is taxable.
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Section 2(14) defines "Capital Asset" under the Income-tax Act.
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Rural agricultural land is not treated as a capital asset.
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Sale of rural agricultural land generally does not attract capital gains tax.
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Urban agricultural land is usually treated as a capital asset.
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The exemption aims to protect farmers and agricultural activities.
Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 1 (I and II only)
Government receipts are classified into Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts. Capital receipts either increase the government's liabilities or reduce its assets, whereas revenue receipts are regular incomes that do not create liabilities or reduce assets.
✅ Statement I is Correct: Capital receipts either create a liability (such as borrowings) or reduce government assets (such as disinvestment).
✅ Statement II is Correct: Both borrowings and disinvestment proceeds are classified as capital receipts.
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Borrowings increase liabilities.
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Disinvestment reduces government ownership in assets.
❌ Statement III is Incorrect: Interest received on loans is a Revenue Receipt, not a liability. It is income earned by the government and does not create any liability.
Short Notes: Capital Receipts and Revenue Receipts
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Government receipts are classified into Capital Receipts and Revenue Receipts.
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Capital Receipts create liabilities or reduce assets.
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Examples of Capital Receipts: Borrowings, Recovery of Loans, Disinvestment.
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Revenue Receipts neither create liabilities nor reduce assets.
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Examples of Revenue Receipts: Taxes, Fees, Dividends, Interest Receipts.
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Borrowings increase the public debt of the government.
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Disinvestment involves the sale of government stakes in public sector enterprises.