UPSC CSE Prelims
Indian Economy Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) for Indian Economy in UPSC CSE Prelims in English & Hindi Medium.
Chapter Breakdown: Scroll →
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Syndicated lending is a financial arrangement where multiple lenders collectively provide a loan to a single borrower, thereby distributing the credit risk among all participating lenders. Statement-II is incorrect because syndicated loans can take various forms including not only fixed-amount term loans but also revolving credit facilities (credit lines), thereby providing flexibility to borrowers.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: Syndicated lending inherently spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders as each lender contributes only a portion of the total loan amount.
❌ Statement-II – Incorrect: Syndicated loans can be both fixed-amount/lump sum funds as well as revolving credit lines, providing various financing options to borrowers.
📝 Short Notes: Syndicated Lending
- Definition: A loan offered by a group of lenders (syndicate) to a single borrower, typically for large-scale financing needs.
- Lead Arranger: One or more banks act as lead arrangers who structure the loan, negotiate terms, and coordinate with other lenders.
- Types: Can be term loans (fixed amount disbursed at once) or revolving credit facilities (credit line that can be drawn, repaid, and redrawn).
- Risk Distribution: Each lender bears only a proportionate share of the credit risk, making it attractive for large loans.
- Common Uses: Infrastructure projects, corporate acquisitions, large capital expenditures, and refinancing existing debt.
- Advantages: Access to larger loan amounts, diversification of risk for lenders, and competitive pricing for borrowers.
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee :
- It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
- It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet.
- It is insured against inflation by its very design.
- It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 4
The digital rupee (CBDC) is a sovereign currency issued by the RBI as part of its monetary policy framework, appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet, and is freely convertible with bank deposits and cash. However, it does not have inherent protection against inflation, which is managed through broader monetary policy measures.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The digital rupee (e-rupee or CBDC) is a sovereign currency issued by the RBI in alignment with its monetary policy objectives.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Like physical currency, the digital rupee appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet, representing a claim on the central bank.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The digital rupee is not insured against inflation by design; its value is subject to inflationary pressures managed by RBI's monetary policy.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: The digital rupee is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash at a 1:1 ratio without restrictions.
📝 Short Notes: Digital Rupee (CBDC)
- Definition: Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is a legal tender issued in digital form by the Reserve Bank of India, representing a digital form of sovereign currency.
- Types: Two variants—Wholesale CBDC (CBDC-W) for interbank settlements and Retail CBDC (CBDC-R) for public use.
- Launch: Pilot projects launched in 2022-23; Wholesale CBDC pilot started November 2022, Retail CBDC pilot started December 2022.
- Balance Sheet Treatment: Recorded as a liability on RBI's balance sheet, similar to physical currency notes.
- Convertibility: Maintains 1:1 convertibility with physical currency and bank deposits.
- Monetary Policy Tool: Part of RBI's monetary policy framework, but does not inherently protect against inflation.
- Technology: Uses blockchain and distributed ledger technology for secure, traceable transactions.
- Advantages: Reduces transaction costs, enhances financial inclusion, enables offline transactions, and reduces currency management costs.
Consider the following airports:
- Donyi Polo Airport
- Kushinagar International Airport
- Vijayawada International Airport
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 and 2 only
Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar) and Kushinagar International Airport are both greenfield projects, meaning they were constructed from scratch on previously undeveloped land. Donyi Polo Airport was inaugurated in 2022, while Kushinagar International Airport began operations in 2021. Vijayawada International Airport, however, is an existing airport that has undergone expansion and modernization over the years, making it a brownfield project rather than a greenfield one.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Donyi Polo Airport is a greenfield project built on undeveloped land in Arunachal Pradesh and inaugurated in 2022.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Kushinagar International Airport is a greenfield project constructed on new land in Uttar Pradesh and inaugurated in 2021.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Vijayawada International Airport is a decades-old airport that has been expanded and modernized, not a greenfield project.
📝 Short Notes: Greenfield vs Brownfield Airport Projects in India
- Greenfield Projects: New airports built from scratch on previously undeveloped land, without any existing infrastructure. These require complete planning, land acquisition, and construction.
- Brownfield Projects: Expansion, modernization, or redevelopment of existing airports with established infrastructure and operational facilities.
- Donyi Polo Airport: Located in Hollongi near Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh; inaugurated on November 19, 2022; the state's first airport; built to enhance connectivity in the Northeast.
- Kushinagar International Airport: Located in Kushinagar, Uttar Pradesh; inaugurated on October 20, 2021; significant for Buddhist pilgrimage tourism; first international flight carried Sri Lankan pilgrims.
- Vijayawada Airport: Operational since 1940s; upgraded to international status; located in Gannavaram; serves Andhra Pradesh's capital region.
- Other Recent Greenfield Airports: Pakyong Airport (Sikkim - 2018), Kannur International Airport (Kerala - 2018), Shirdi Airport (Maharashtra - 2017), and Durgapur Airport (West Bengal - 2013).
- UDAN Scheme: Many new and upgraded airports are part of the government's Regional Connectivity Scheme (UDAN - Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) launched in 2016 to improve air connectivity to tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
🧐 Not Sure What to Study Next?
Get a personalised study plan based on your goals, time and revision needs.
Consider the following plants:
- Groundnut
- Horse-gram
- Soybean
How many of the above belong to the pea family?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 3 (All Three)
All three plants—Groundnut, Horse-gram, and Soybean—belong to the Fabaceae (also called Leguminosae or pea family). Members of this family typically produce fruits in the form of pods (legumes) and possess nitrogen-fixing root nodules.
✅ Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) – Correct: Belongs to the Fabaceae family and produces seeds inside pods.
✅ Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum) – Correct: A leguminous crop belonging to the pea family.
✅ Soybean (Glycine max) – Correct: One of the world's most important legumes and a member of Fabaceae.
Therefore, all three belong to the pea family.
Short Notes: Fabaceae (Pea Family)
-
One of the largest flowering plant families with over 19,000 species.
-
Also known as Leguminosae.
-
Characterized by pod-like fruits (legumes).
-
Roots contain Rhizobium bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen.
-
Important food crops include pea, gram, lentil, soybean, groundnut, and horse-gram.
-
Helps improve soil fertility through nitrogen fixation.
-
Rich source of protein in human and animal diets.
-
Economically important for food, fodder, oil, and soil conservation.
With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
- CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
- CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed explanation coming soon.
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:
- The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
- Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
- Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
- Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Option 2 (Statements 2 and 3 only)
The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana (PM-SYM) is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme launched for workers in the unorganized sector to provide old-age income security.
❌ Statement 1 is Incorrect: The eligible entry age is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years.
✅ Statement 2 is Correct: The subscriber makes age-specific monthly contributions. The contribution amount increases with the age at entry.
✅ Statement 3 is Correct: Every subscriber receives a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining 60 years of age.
❌ Statement 4 is Incorrect: Family pension is available only to the spouse, who receives 50% of the pension after the subscriber's death. Unmarried daughters are not covered.
Short Notes: Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM)
-
Launched in 2019 for workers in the unorganized sector.
-
Entry age: 18–40 years.
-
Provides a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month after 60 years.
-
It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme.
-
The Central Government makes an equal matching contribution to the subscriber's contribution.
-
Implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
-
On the subscriber's death, the spouse receives 50% of the pension as family pension.
-
Target beneficiaries include street vendors, domestic workers, agricultural labourers, construction workers, etc.
Consider the following:
- Demographic performance
- Forest and ecology
- Governance reforms
- Stable government
- Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only three
The Fifteenth Finance Commission used six criteria for horizontal tax devolution: Income Distance (45%), Population (15%), Area (15%), Forest and Ecology (10%), Demographic Performance (12.5%), and Tax and Fiscal Efforts (2.5%). Apart from the three mentioned criteria (population, area, and income distance), only three from the given list were used: Demographic Performance, Forest and Ecology, and Tax and Fiscal Efforts. Governance reforms and stable government were not used as criteria for horizontal tax devolution.
📝 Short Notes: Fifteenth Finance Commission - Horizontal Devolution Criteria
| Criterion | Weight (%) | Rationale |
|---|---|---|
| Income Distance | 45% | Distance of state's per capita income from the highest income state |
| Population | 15% | Based on 2011 Census data |
| Area | 15% | Higher cost of service delivery in larger areas |
| Forest and Ecology | 10% | Share of dense forest cover; environmental conservation incentive |
| Demographic Performance | 12.5% | Rewards states for controlling population growth (1971 baseline) |
| Tax and Fiscal Efforts | 2.5% | Incentive for higher tax collection efficiency |
- Period: 2021-2026 (Award Period)
- Key Change: Demographic Performance replaced 'Demographic Change' used by 14th FC
- Not Included: Governance reforms, stable government, or political stability
Consider the following statements:
- The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
- Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — All three
All three statements about niger (Guizotia abyssinica) are correct. The Government of India provides MSP for niger seeds as it is one of the 14 Kharif crops under the MSP scheme. Niger is indeed cultivated as a Kharif crop, primarily in hilly and tribal areas with poor soils. Niger seed oil is traditionally used for cooking by tribal communities in states like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Niger seed is one of the 14 Kharif crops for which the Government of India announces Minimum Support Price (MSP) through the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Niger is primarily cultivated as a Kharif (monsoon season) crop in India, especially in hilly and tribal regions with poor soil conditions.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Niger seed oil is traditionally used for cooking by tribal communities in various states, and also has other uses like lighting, lubrication, and in soap making.
📝 Short Notes: Niger Crop & MSP
- Niger (Guizotia abyssinica): A minor oilseed crop belonging to the Asteraceae family, also known as ramtil or black sesame in some regions.
- Cultivation Season: Primarily grown as a Kharif crop (sown in June-July, harvested in October-November).
- Growing Regions: Mainly cultivated in Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Jharkhand.
- Soil Requirements: Can grow in poor, marginal soils; suitable for hilly and tribal areas where other crops may not thrive.
- MSP Coverage: Part of 22 mandated crops (14 Kharif + 6 Rabi + 2 other commercial crops) for which Government announces MSP.
- Uses: Oil extraction for cooking (especially by tribal communities), lighting, soap making, and industrial purposes; oil cake used as cattle feed and manure.
Consider the following statements with reference to India:
- According to the 'Micro Small and Medium enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
- All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the Priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 Only
This question tests the understanding of MSME classification criteria and Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms. Statement 1 incorrectly states outdated investment thresholds for medium enterprises, while Statement 2 correctly identifies that all MSME loans qualify under priority sector lending as per RBI guidelines.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The investment range of ₹15-25 crore for medium enterprises does not match any official MSME classification. Under the 2020 notification, medium enterprises were defined as units with investment up to ₹50 crore and turnover up to ₹250 crore. The 2025 revision further raised these limits to ₹125 crore investment and ₹500 crore turnover.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: As per RBI's Master Direction on Priority Sector Lending, all bank credit to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualifies for priority sector classification, helping banks meet their PSL targets.
📝 Short Notes: MSME Classification & Priority Sector Lending
| Classification | MSMED Act 2006 (Original) | 2020 Notification | 2025 Revision |
|---|---|---|---|
| Micro Enterprise | Investment up to ₹25 lakh (Manufacturing) / ₹10 lakh (Services) | Investment up to ₹1 crore & Turnover up to ₹5 crore | Investment up to ₹1 crore & Turnover up to ₹5 crore |
| Small Enterprise | Investment ₹25 lakh - ₹5 crore (Manufacturing) / ₹10 lakh - ₹2 crore (Services) | Investment up to ₹10 crore & Turnover up to ₹50 crore | Investment up to ₹10 crore & Turnover up to ₹50 crore |
| Medium Enterprise | Investment ₹5 crore - ₹10 crore (Manufacturing) / ₹2 crore - ₹5 crore (Services) | Investment up to ₹50 crore & Turnover up to ₹250 crore | Investment up to ₹125 crore & Turnover up to ₹500 crore |
- Composite Criterion: Since 2020, both investment in plant & machinery/equipment AND annual turnover are considered for classification.
- Udyam Registration: Online registration portal introduced in 2020 for MSMEs based on self-declaration.
- Priority Sector Lending: RBI mandates that 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) for domestic banks and 32% for foreign banks must go to priority sectors.
- MSME Sub-targets: 7.5% of ANBC must be lent to Micro enterprises; all MSME loans count toward overall PSL achievement.
- Benefits: MSMEs receive collateral-free loans up to ₹10 lakh, lower interest rates, priority in government procurement, and protection against delayed payments.
Consider the investments in the following assets:
- Brand recognition
- Inventory
- Intellectual property
- Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Only three
Out of the four listed assets, three are considered intangible investments: Brand recognition, Intellectual property, and Mailing list of clients. These represent non-physical assets that derive value from legal rights, reputation, and customer relationships.
✅ Brand recognition – Intangible: This is a non-physical asset representing the value associated with a brand's reputation, customer loyalty, and market recognition.
✅ Intellectual property – Intangible: This includes patents, copyrights, trademarks, and trade secrets—legally protected non-physical assets that provide competitive advantage.
✅ Mailing list of clients – Intangible: This is a customer relationship asset with economic value, as it enables direct marketing and business communication without physical form.
❌ Inventory – Tangible: Inventory consists of physical goods and raw materials held for sale or production, making it a tangible asset with measurable physical presence.
📝 Short Notes: Tangible vs. Intangible Assets
- Tangible Assets: Physical assets with material form that can be touched and seen (e.g., land, buildings, machinery, inventory, vehicles).
- Intangible Assets: Non-physical assets that derive value from legal rights, intellectual content, or relationships (e.g., patents, trademarks, goodwill, brand equity, customer lists).
- Valuation Difference: Tangible assets are easier to value based on physical attributes, while intangible assets require assessment of future economic benefits.
- Depreciation vs. Amortization: Tangible assets depreciate over time; intangible assets are amortized (except goodwill, which is tested for impairment).
- Economic Importance: In modern knowledge-based economies, intangible assets often constitute a larger share of company value than tangible assets.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
This question tests knowledge about the taxation and legal framework governing Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) in India. Statement-I contains outdated information about tax exemptions, while Statement-II correctly identifies the legal status of InvITs under SARFAESI Act.
❌ Statement-I – Incorrect: The Union Budget 2023 eliminated the tax exemption on interest income from InvITs. Currently, all income distributed by InvITs (interest, dividends, and rental income) is taxable in the hands of unitholders as per their applicable income tax slab rates.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 (SARFAESI Act), which enables them to access diverse financing options and enforce security interests in case of loan defaults.
📝 Short Notes: Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
- Definition: InvITs are investment vehicles that pool funds from investors to invest in income-generating infrastructure assets like roads, power transmission lines, and pipelines.
- Regulation: Regulated by SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014; mandatory listing on stock exchanges for public InvITs.
- Structure: Consists of Sponsor (minimum 15% holding for 3 years), Trustee, Investment Manager, and Project Manager.
- Taxation (Post-Budget 2023): All distributions (interest, dividend, rental income) are taxable in hands of unitholders; no tax exemption on interest income anymore.
- Minimum Investment: ₹10-15 lakh for retail investors in public InvITs, making them suitable for institutional and HNI investors.
- SARFAESI Act Status: Recognized as borrowers under SARFAESI Act, 2002, providing legal framework for debt recovery and enforcement of security interests.
- Revenue Model: Generate income through tolls, lease rentals, and usage charges from infrastructure assets; distribute at least 90% of net cash flows to unitholders.
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
In the post-pandemic period, central banks worldwide implemented interest rate hikes to combat rising inflation caused by supply chain disruptions and increased demand. This action was based on the fundamental central banking principle that monetary policy tools, particularly interest rate adjustments, can effectively control inflation by reducing liquidity and dampening demand. Statement-II provides the theoretical foundation and rationale for the practical action described in Statement-I.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: Post-pandemic, many central banks including the US Federal Reserve, RBI, ECB, and Bank of England raised interest rates to combat inflation that peaked globally in 2022-23.
✅ Statement-II – Correct: Central banks operate on the principle that monetary policy, especially interest rate manipulation, can influence aggregate demand and thereby control consumer price inflation.
📝 Short Notes: Monetary Policy and Interest Rates
- Interest Rate Hikes: Central banks increase policy rates (like repo rate in India) to make borrowing expensive, reduce money supply, and curb inflation.
- Monetary Policy Transmission: Rate changes affect commercial lending rates, consumer spending, investment decisions, and ultimately aggregate demand and prices.
- Post-Pandemic Inflation: Supply chain bottlenecks, pent-up demand, fiscal stimulus, and commodity price shocks led to global inflation surge in 2021-23.
- Global Response: US Fed raised rates from near-zero to 5.25-5.50%, ECB from negative to 4%, RBI from 4% to 6.50% during 2022-23.
- Inflation Targeting: Most modern central banks follow inflation targeting framework with mandate to maintain price stability within defined bands.
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:
- It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Both 1 and 2
Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) enable direct cross-border transactions between central banks without requiring the US dollar as an intermediary or the SWIFT messaging system. Additionally, CBDCs can be programmed with smart contracts to impose conditions such as expiration dates or restrictions on usage, making them 'programmable money.'
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: CBDCs allow peer-to-peer cross-border payments through bilateral arrangements or common platforms between central banks, bypassing the need for US dollar or SWIFT system.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: CBDCs can be programmed with conditions like time-bound spending or purpose-specific use (e.g., subsidies), making them programmable digital currency.
📝 Short Notes: Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs)
- Definition: CBDCs are digital forms of fiat currency issued and regulated by a country's central bank, representing legal tender in digital format.
- Types: Retail CBDCs (for public use) and Wholesale CBDCs (for financial institutions and interbank settlements).
- Programmability: CBDCs can incorporate smart contracts enabling conditional payments, time-bound spending, and purpose-specific usage restrictions.
- Cross-border Transactions: Enable direct central bank-to-central bank settlements, reducing dependency on correspondent banking, SWIFT, and US dollar as reserve currency.
- India's Digital Rupee (e₹): RBI launched pilot projects for both wholesale (e₹-W) and retail (e₹-R) CBDCs in 2022-23.
- Advantages: Reduced transaction costs, financial inclusion, transparency, real-time settlement, and enhanced monetary policy transmission.
- Challenges: Privacy concerns, cybersecurity risks, impact on commercial banks' deposit base, and technological infrastructure requirements.
Consider the following markets:
- Government Bond Market
- Call Money Market
- Treasury Bill Market
- Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two
Capital markets are financial markets where long-term securities (typically with maturity greater than one year) are traded, such as stocks and bonds. Money markets deal with short-term instruments (typically less than one year maturity) such as treasury bills, call money, commercial paper, etc.
✅ Government Bond Market – Correct: Government bonds are long-term debt securities (maturity ranging from 5 to 40 years) issued by governments to finance their activities, and are traded in capital markets.
❌ Call Money Market – Incorrect: The call money market is an ultra-short-term market where funds are borrowed and lent for 1 day to 14 days (typically overnight), making it part of the money market, not the capital market.
❌ Treasury Bill Market – Incorrect: Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term debt instruments issued by the government with maturities of 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days, and are traded in the money market.
✅ Stock Market – Correct: The stock market involves trading of equity shares and ownership interests in companies, which are long-term instruments, making it a core component of capital markets.
📝 Short Notes: Capital Markets vs Money Markets
| Aspect | Capital Market | Money Market |
|---|---|---|
| Time Period | Long-term (> 1 year) | Short-term (< 1 year) |
| Purpose | Long-term financing and investment | Short-term liquidity management |
| Instruments | Stocks, Government Bonds, Corporate Bonds, Debentures | Treasury Bills, Call Money, Commercial Paper, Certificate of Deposit, Repos |
| Risk | Higher risk and higher return | Lower risk and lower return |
| Participants | Retail investors, institutional investors, companies | Banks, financial institutions, RBI, corporate treasuries |
| Regulation | SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) | RBI (Reserve Bank of India) |
Consider the following Statements :
Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Switzerland is indeed one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value, consistently ranking first globally due to its role as a major gold refining and trading hub. However, Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world; the United States holds the largest gold reserves (approximately 8,000 tonnes), followed by Germany, Italy, and France—Switzerland ranks much lower.
✅ Statement-I – Correct: Switzerland is the world's leading exporter of gold by value, having exported $86.7B in gold in 2021, primarily due to its extensive gold refining industry.
❌ Statement-II – Incorrect: Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves; the United States has the largest reserves, followed by Germany and Italy.
📝 Short Notes: Global Gold Trade and Reserves
- Top Gold Exporters: Switzerland consistently ranks #1 in gold exports by value due to its sophisticated refining infrastructure and position as a global trading hub.
- Top Gold Reserves (2024): 1. United States (~8,000 tonnes), 2. Germany (~3,350 tonnes), 3. Italy (~2,450 tonnes), 4. France (~2,440 tonnes), 5. Russia (~2,300 tonnes).
- India's Gold Resources: Primary gold ore resources are concentrated in Bihar (44%), Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), with smaller deposits in West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, and Jharkhand.
- India's Gold Trade: India is one of the largest gold importers (800-1,000 tonnes annually), sourcing mainly from Switzerland, UAE, and South Africa, driven by jewelry and investment demand.
- Switzerland's Role: Acts as a refining center, importing raw gold, refining it to high purity standards, and re-exporting to global markets.