UPSC Prelims 2022
Environment & Ecology Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 17 solved UPSC Prelims 2022 Environment & Ecology questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Ant
Certain ant species, particularly leaf-cutter ants and others in the tribe Attini, are well-known for cultivating fungi. These ants practice sophisticated agriculture by cutting plant material, using it as substrate to grow specific fungus species in underground gardens, which then serve as their primary food source. This remarkable mutualistic relationship represents one of the most advanced examples of non-human agriculture in nature.
Why other options are incorrect:
• Cockroaches are omnivorous scavengers that do not cultivate fungi
• Crabs are aquatic scavengers or predators without fungal cultivation behavior
• Spiders are predators that capture prey and do not engage in fungal farming
📝 Short Notes: Fungus-Growing Ants
- Primary Species: Leaf-cutter ants (Atta and Acromyrmex genera) and fungus-growing ants (Tribe Attini) cultivate fungi as their primary food source
- Agricultural Process: Worker ants cut fresh plant material, chew it into a pulp, and use it as substrate for fungal cultivation in specialized underground chambers
- Fungal Species: They cultivate specific fungi from the family Lepiotaceae, which cannot survive outside the ant colonies
- Mutualistic Symbiosis: The ants provide the fungus with nutrients and protection, while the fungus provides specialized structures (gongylidia) as food for the ants
- Antibiotic Production: Some fungus-growing ants harbor bacteria (Actinomycetes) on their bodies that produce antibiotics to protect their fungal gardens from parasitic fungi
- Evolutionary Significance: This ant-fungus mutualism evolved approximately 50-60 million years ago and represents convergent evolution with human agriculture
With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:
- Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
- Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
- Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
- Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1 and 3
Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is a versatile polymer widely used in textiles and packaging. Statements 1 and 3 are correct as PET fibres can be blended with natural fibres to enhance properties, and PET bottles are highly recyclable. Statements 2 and 4 are incorrect because not all PET containers are suitable for storing all types of alcoholic beverages (especially high-proof spirits or at elevated temperatures due to potential chemical leaching), and incineration of PET inevitably produces greenhouse gas emissions, primarily CO₂.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: PET fibres (polyester) are commonly blended with wool and cotton to improve wrinkle resistance, strength, and durability in textile applications.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: While PET containers can store some alcoholic beverages, they are not suitable for all types, particularly high-alcohol content spirits or beverages stored at high temperatures, as chemicals may leach from the plastic.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: PET bottles are among the most recycled plastics globally and can be reprocessed into new bottles, polyester clothing, carpets, automotive parts, and construction materials.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Incineration of PET releases greenhouse gases including carbon dioxide and potentially toxic compounds; it is not an environmentally friendly disposal method without causing emissions.
📝 Short Notes: Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET)
- Chemical Formula: (C₁₀H₈O₄)ₙ – a thermoplastic polymer resin of the polyester family
- Common Uses: Beverage bottles, food containers, synthetic fibres (polyester), packaging films, and engineering resins
- Recycling Code: #1 (PETE or PET) – one of the most widely recycled plastics worldwide
- Textile Applications: PET fibres (polyester) are blended with natural fibres like cotton and wool to enhance durability, wrinkle resistance, and moisture-wicking properties
- Recyclability: Can be mechanically or chemically recycled into rPET (recycled PET) for new bottles, clothing, carpets, and industrial materials
- Environmental Concerns: Non-biodegradable; incineration releases CO₂ and other pollutants; microplastic generation; requires proper waste management
- Storage Limitations: Not suitable for high-temperature storage or high-proof alcoholic beverages due to potential chemical leaching (acetaldehyde, antimony)
- Advantages: Lightweight, shatter-resistant, excellent barrier properties for gases and moisture, cost-effective, and energy-efficient to produce
Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Central Ground Water Authority
The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, to regulate and control the development and management of groundwater resources in the country. It is the only body among the given options that derives its statutory authority directly from the EPA, 1986.
❌ Option 1 – Central Water Commission (Incorrect): Established in 1945 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti for water resource planning and development, but not constituted under EPA, 1986.
❌ Option 2 – Central Ground Water Board (Incorrect): A subordinate organization established in 1970 under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, functioning as the technical arm of CGWA, but not constituted under EPA, 1986.
❌ Option 4 – National Water Development Agency (Incorrect): An autonomous agency established in 1982 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, focusing on interstate water disputes and interlinking of rivers, but not constituted under EPA, 1986.
📝 Short Notes: Water Resource Management Bodies in India
| Body | Year of Establishment | Legal Basis | Primary Function |
|---|---|---|---|
| Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) | 1996 | Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 - Section 3(3) | Regulation and control of groundwater development and management |
| Central Water Commission (CWC) | 1945 | Government of India Resolution | Water resource planning, development, and management |
| Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) | 1970 | Government of India Resolution | Technical arm providing hydrogeological data and expertise |
| National Water Development Agency (NWDA) | 1982 | Societies Registration Act, 1860 | Interstate water disputes, feasibility studies, river interlinking projects |
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Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?
- Alfalfa
- Amaranth
- Chickpea
- Clover
- Purslane (Kulfa)
- Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — 1, 3 and 4 only
Nitrogen-fixing plants have a symbiotic relationship with rhizobia bacteria in their root nodules, which convert atmospheric nitrogen into forms usable by the plant. Among the listed options, only Alfalfa (1), Chickpea (3), and Clover (4) are leguminous nitrogen-fixing plants. Amaranth, Purslane (Kulfa), and Spinach are non-leguminous plants that depend on soil nitrogen and cannot fix atmospheric nitrogen.
✅ Statement 1 (Alfalfa) – Correct: Alfalfa is a legume with nitrogen-fixing capability through symbiotic rhizobia bacteria.
❌ Statement 2 (Amaranth) – Incorrect: Amaranth is a leafy vegetable that requires soil nitrogen and lacks nitrogen-fixing ability.
✅ Statement 3 (Chickpea) – Correct: Chickpea (a legume) has root nodules with nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
✅ Statement 4 (Clover) – Correct: Clover is a well-known leguminous nitrogen-fixer used in crop rotation and soil improvement.
❌ Statement 5 (Purslane/Kulfa) – Incorrect: Purslane is a succulent weed that does not fix nitrogen.
❌ Statement 6 (Spinach) – Incorrect: Spinach is a leafy vegetable requiring nitrogen from soil or fertilizers.
📝 Short Notes: Nitrogen-Fixing Plants
- Nitrogen Fixation: The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) into ammonia or nitrates usable by plants, primarily performed by nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
- Symbiotic Nitrogen Fixation: Leguminous plants (family Fabaceae/Leguminosae) form symbiotic relationships with rhizobia bacteria in root nodules to fix nitrogen.
- Common Nitrogen-Fixing Plants: Include legumes like alfalfa, chickpea, clover, peas, beans, lentils, soybeans, and peanuts.
- Agricultural Importance: Nitrogen-fixing crops reduce the need for synthetic nitrogen fertilizers, improve soil fertility, and are commonly used in crop rotation systems.
- Non-Nitrogen-Fixing Plants: Most cereals, vegetables, and non-leguminous plants (like amaranth, spinach, purslane) cannot fix nitrogen and depend on soil nitrogen content.
- Elimination Strategy: Knowing that purslane is a common weed helps eliminate options containing it, as weeds typically do not have specialized nitrogen-fixing mechanisms.
Which of the following is not a bird?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Golden Mahseer
The Golden Mahseer (Tor putitora) is a species of large freshwater fish, not a bird. Often referred to as the 'Tiger of the Water', it is native to the Himalayan region and inhabits the rapid streams and rivers of the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra basins. It is recognized by its large golden scales and is currently listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
✅ Option 2 – Indian Nightjar: A nocturnal bird species found across the Indian subcontinent, belonging to the Caprimulgidae family.
✅ Option 3 – Spoonbill: A wading bird characterized by its distinctive spoon-shaped bill, found in wetlands and marshes.
✅ Option 4 – White Ibis: A wading bird with white plumage, commonly found in wetlands and coastal regions.
📝 Short Notes: Indian Wildlife Species
- Golden Mahseer (Tor putitora): Large freshwater fish found in Himalayan rivers; known as 'Tiger of the Water'; IUCN status: Endangered; threatened by overfishing, habitat degradation, and dam construction.
- Indian Nightjar: Nocturnal insectivorous bird; cryptic plumage provides excellent camouflage; found in dry scrublands and open forests.
- Spoonbill: Includes species like Eurasian Spoonbill; feeds by sweeping its spatulate bill through water; inhabits wetlands and shallow water bodies.
- White Ibis: Includes Black-headed Ibis (Threskiornis melanocephalus); wading bird found in wetlands; feeds on aquatic invertebrates and small fish.
- Conservation Significance: All these species are indicators of ecosystem health; wetland birds indicate water quality while mahseer indicates river health.
"If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
The analogy of wetlands as "kidneys of the Earth" is best reflected by their filtration function. Just as kidneys filter waste products and toxins from blood, wetlands act as natural filters by absorbing pollutants, heavy metals, and excess nutrients from water through aquatic plants and microbes. This phytoremediation and nutrient regulation process purifies water and prevents harmful substances from contaminating downstream ecosystems, paralleling the kidney's role in maintaining bodily health.
Why other options are less appropriate:
Option 1 describes the water cycle, which relates more to circulation than filtration. Option 2 explains the food web, not the purification function. Option 3 addresses sediment control, which is important but doesn't capture the filtering/cleansing aspect central to the kidney analogy.
📝 Short Notes: Wetland Functions
- Filtration & Purification: Wetlands remove pollutants, heavy metals, sediments, and excess nutrients through plant uptake and microbial action (phytoremediation and bioremediation).
- Nutrient Regulation: Absorb excess nitrogen and phosphorus, preventing eutrophication in water bodies downstream.
- Flood Control: Act as natural sponges, absorbing excess rainfall and reducing flood peaks.
- Groundwater Recharge: Facilitate percolation of water into aquifers, maintaining groundwater levels.
- Biodiversity Hotspots: Support diverse flora and fauna, including migratory birds, fish, and amphibians.
- Carbon Sequestration: Wetland vegetation and soils store significant amounts of carbon, helping mitigate climate change.
- Coastal Protection: Mangroves and coastal wetlands buffer against storms, tsunamis, and erosion.
Consider the following statements:
- "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them.
- The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100".
- EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
- Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
- The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1, 3 and 4 only
This question tests knowledge about global climate initiatives and organizations. Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct as they accurately describe The Climate Group's nature, EP100's objectives, and Indian corporate participation. Statements 2 and 5 are incorrect regarding the partnerships and secretariat roles.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Climate Group is indeed an international non-profit organization founded in 2004 that drives climate action by building large networks of businesses, governments, and regional authorities across multiple offices globally.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: EP100 is a global initiative led by The Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy, not the International Energy Agency (IEA).
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: EP100 brings together leading companies committed to improving energy productivity, driving innovation in energy efficiency, and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Several Indian companies including Mahindra & Mahindra (first Indian member), Dalmia Cement, and UltraTech Cement are members of EP100.
❌ Statement 5 – Incorrect: The Climate Group, not the International Energy Agency, serves as the Secretariat to the Under2 Coalition—a global community of state and regional governments committed to limiting global temperature rise below 2°C.
📝 Short Notes: Global Climate Initiatives & Organizations
| Initiative/Organization | Key Details |
|---|---|
| The Climate Group | • International non-profit (2004) • Offices: London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam, Beijing • Builds networks of businesses and governments • Secretariat for Under2 Coalition |
| EP100 | • Global energy efficiency initiative • Partners: Climate Group + Alliance to Save Energy • Focus: Energy productivity & competitiveness • Indian members: Mahindra & Mahindra, Dalmia Cement, UltraTech Cement |
| Under2 Coalition | • State and regional governments network • Goal: Keep temperature rise below 2°C • Secretariat: The Climate Group |
| International Energy Agency (IEA) | • Autonomous organization (1974) • Focus: Energy security, economic development, environmental awareness • Not partner of EP100 or secretariat of Under2 Coalition |
Consider the following;
- Carbon monoxide
- Nitrogen oxide
- Ozone
- Sulphur dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 and 4 only
Acid rain is caused by the presence of nitrogen oxides (NOₘ) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂) in the atmosphere, which react with water vapor to form nitric acid and sulphuric acid respectively. Carbon monoxide and ozone are pollutants but do not directly contribute to acid rain formation.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) react with water and oxygen in the atmosphere to form nitric acid (HNO₃), a primary component of acid rain.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Carbon monoxide (CO) is a pollutant that contributes to ground-level ozone formation but does not cause acid rain.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Ozone (O₃) is a secondary pollutant and does not act as a precursor for acid rain formation.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) reacts with atmospheric moisture to form sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄), the other major component of acid rain.
📝 Short Notes: Acid Rain
- Definition: Acid rain refers to precipitation (rain, snow, fog) with a pH below 5.6, caused by atmospheric pollution.
- Primary Causes: Emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from coal combustion and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) from vehicle exhausts and industrial processes.
- Chemical Reactions: SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃ (sulphurous acid) → H₂SO₄ (sulphuric acid); NOₓ + H₂O → HNO₃ (nitric acid).
- Environmental Effects: Acidification of lakes and streams, damage to forests, corrosion of buildings and monuments (especially marble and limestone), soil degradation.
- Human Health Impact: Respiratory problems due to fine particulate matter formed from SO₂ and NOₓ.
- Control Measures: Use of low-sulphur fuels, installation of scrubbers in industries, catalytic converters in vehicles, and promotion of renewable energy sources.
The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — Creation of mini forests in urban areas
The Miyawaki method is a unique afforestation technique developed by Japanese botanist Dr. Akira Miyawaki that creates dense, multi-layered native forests in small urban spaces. This method enables the growth of forests 10 times faster, 30 times denser, and with 100 times more biodiversity compared to conventional plantation methods, making it ideal for creating mini forests in urban areas.
📝 Short Notes: Miyawaki Method of Urban Afforestation
- Developer: Dr. Akira Miyawaki, Japanese botanist and professor (since 1980); awarded the Blue Planet Prize in 2006
- Principle: Uses native species of plants in multi-layered plantation to replicate natural forest ecosystems
- Key Features: Grows 10x faster, 30x denser, with 100x more biodiversity than conventional methods
- Area Requirement: Can be implemented in areas as small as 20 square meters
- Success Rate: Over 2,000 forests successfully created worldwide using this method
- Advantages: Works irrespective of soil and climatic conditions; requires minimal maintenance after 2-3 years; improves air quality and urban biodiversity
- Indian Context: Adopted in several Indian cities including Bangalore, Mumbai, Delhi, and Chandigarh for urban greening initiatives
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Rice
Rice cultivation is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane (CH₄) and nitrous oxide (N₂O) among the given crops. Flooded rice paddies create anaerobic conditions that promote methane production by methanogenic bacteria, which is then released through the rice plants. Additionally, the heavy use of nitrogen-based fertilizers in rice cultivation leads to nitrous oxide emissions when soil microbes convert excess nitrogen that is poorly absorbed by the rice plants.
📝 Short Notes: Greenhouse Gas Emissions from Agriculture
- Methane from Rice: Waterlogged paddy fields create oxygen-depleted (anaerobic) conditions ideal for methanogenic archaea, producing CH₄ that escapes through rice plant stems and soil.
- Nitrous Oxide from Fertilizers: Nitrogen fertilizers undergo microbial processes (nitrification and denitrification) in soil, releasing N₂O, especially when applied in excess.
- Global Warming Potential: CH₄ is 28-34 times more potent than CO₂ over 100 years; N₂O is approximately 265-298 times more potent than CO₂.
- Rice vs Other Crops: Cotton, wheat, and sugarcane are primarily upland crops without prolonged flooding, producing minimal methane. Rice paddies account for ~10-12% of global methane emissions.
- Mitigation Strategies: Alternate wetting and drying (AWD), improved fertilizer management, use of slow-release fertilizers, and development of low-emission rice varieties.
In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
- The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m³.
- In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
- PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
- Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 1 and 4 only
The WHO Air Quality Guidelines (2021) set stringent limits for particulate matter and other pollutants to protect public health. Statement 1 correctly states WHO's recommended limits for PM2.5, and Statement 4 correctly identifies ozone's role in triggering asthma. However, statements 2 and 3 contain factual errors regarding ozone formation conditions and the penetration capabilities of different particulate matter sizes.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: WHO guidelines (2021) recommend 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Ozone pollution peaks during sunny, hot, and stagnant weather conditions, not during inclement weather; sunlight drives the photochemical reactions that produce ground-level ozone.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: PM2.5 (not PM10) can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream; PM10 particles are too large and typically deposit in the upper airways and bronchi.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Excessive ozone in the air irritates the respiratory system, triggers asthma attacks, and exacerbates other respiratory conditions.
📝 Short Notes: Air Pollutants and Health Effects
| Pollutant | Size/Characteristics | Health Impact | Formation Conditions |
|---|---|---|---|
| PM10 | Particles ≤10 µm | Deposits in upper airways; causes respiratory irritation, bronchitis | Dust, construction, combustion |
| PM2.5 | Particles ≤2.5 µm (fine) | Penetrates deep into lungs and enters bloodstream; affects heart, brain, organs | Combustion, vehicular emissions, industrial processes |
| Ground-level Ozone (O₃) | Secondary pollutant | Triggers asthma, reduces lung function, respiratory inflammation | Formed by photochemical reactions in sunlight (NOx + VOCs) |
- WHO Air Quality Guidelines (2021): PM2.5 annual mean: 5 µg/m³; 24-hour mean: 15 µg/m³
- WHO Air Quality Guidelines (2021): PM10 annual mean: 15 µg/m³; 24-hour mean: 45 µg/m³
- Ozone peaks: During summer months with high temperature, strong sunlight, and stagnant air masses
- Ultrafine particles (PM0.1): Even smaller than PM2.5, can directly enter blood and organs
- India's National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS): Less stringent than WHO guidelines; PM2.5 annual: 40 µg/m³, 24-hour: 60 µg/m³
Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing"?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
Greenwashing is a deceptive marketing practice where companies mislead consumers by falsely portraying their products, services, or organizational practices as environmentally friendly when they are not. This involves using misleading labels, imagery, vague claims, or selective disclosure of environmental benefits while hiding negative impacts. The term has become increasingly relevant as consumer demand for sustainable products grows, prompting some companies to exaggerate or fabricate their environmental credentials rather than making genuine improvements.
📝 Short Notes: Greenwashing
- Definition: Misleading marketing that creates a false impression of environmental responsibility or sustainability
- Common Tactics: Vague claims ("eco-friendly", "natural"), misleading labels, irrelevant claims, hidden trade-offs, false certifications, and use of green imagery
- Examples: Companies claiming "carbon neutral" without credible offsets, "biodegradable" plastics that require specific conditions, or highlighting one green feature while ignoring overall environmental harm
- Impact: Undermines genuine sustainability efforts, erodes consumer trust, and diverts attention from companies making real environmental progress
- Regulations: Many countries are developing stricter advertising standards and disclosure requirements to combat greenwashing
- Consumer Protection: Look for third-party certifications (Energy Star, Fair Trade, FSC), detailed data, and transparent reporting to identify genuine environmental claims
"System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:
- Reduced seed requirement
- Reduced methane production
- Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — 1, 2 and 3
System of Rice Intensification (SRI) is a climate-smart agricultural practice that optimizes resource use through alternate wetting and drying (AWD) of rice fields. This method significantly reduces seed, water, and energy requirements while minimizing methane emissions from paddy fields.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: SRI requires only 5-8 kg/ha of seeds compared to 60-80 kg/ha in traditional methods, as single younger seedlings are planted with wider spacing.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) prevents continuous flooding, reducing anaerobic conditions that produce methane through methanogenic bacteria, cutting emissions by 30-40%.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: SRI reduces water requirement by 30-50% through controlled irrigation, directly lowering electricity/fuel consumption for pumping groundwater.
📝 Short Notes: System of Rice Intensification (SRI)
- Origin: Developed in Madagascar in the 1980s by Fr. Henri de Laulanié; promoted globally for sustainable rice cultivation.
- Key Principles: Early, quick, and healthy plant establishment; reduced plant density; improved soil conditions with organic matter; reduced and controlled water application.
- Planting Method: Single seedlings (8-12 days old) transplanted with wide spacing (25×25 cm), unlike traditional clumps of 3-4 seedlings.
- Water Management: Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) instead of continuous flooding; fields kept moist but not submerged, saving 25-50% water.
- Environmental Benefits: 30-40% reduction in methane emissions; lower water pollution; reduced energy consumption; enhanced soil health and biodiversity.
- Yield & Economics: 20-50% higher yields with 80-90% less seed requirement; reduces input costs while improving grain quality and farmer income.
- Challenges: Labor-intensive initially; requires knowledge and training; not suitable for all soil types; needs good water control infrastructure.
“Climate Action Tracker” which tracks the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Database created by coalition of research organisations
The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis created and maintained by a coalition of research organisations, specifically Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute. It is not a UN body, IPCC wing, or UNFCCC committee, but rather an independent initiative that tracks government climate action and measures it against the Paris Agreement goals of limiting global warming to well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C. The CAT has been providing independent analysis to policymakers since 2009, quantifying and evaluating climate change mitigation targets, policies, and actions across countries.
📝 Short Notes: Climate Action Tracker
- Nature: Independent scientific analysis platform tracking government climate commitments and actions
- Established: 2009, providing analysis for over a decade
- Managed by: Coalition of two research organisations - Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute
- Primary Function: Tracks national emission reduction pledges and measures them against Paris Agreement targets (well below 2°C, pursuing 1.5°C)
- Methodology: Uses MAGICC climate model to quantify likely temperature increases based on country actions
- Scope: Evaluates mitigation targets, policies, and actions; aggregates country-level data to global projections; develops sectoral analysis for climate pathways
- Independence: Not affiliated with UN, IPCC, UNFCCC, UNEP, or World Bank - operates as autonomous research initiative
Consider the following pairs:
Wetland/Lake - Location
- Hokera Wetland - Punjab
- Renuka Wetland - Himachal Pradesh
- Rudrasagar Lake - Tripura
- Sasthamkotta Lake - Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — Only two pairs
This question tests the geographical location of important Ramsar wetlands in India. Out of the four pairs given, only two pairs are correctly matched: Renuka Wetland with Himachal Pradesh and Rudrasagar Lake with Tripura.
✅ Pair 1 – Incorrect: Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu & Kashmir (near Srinagar), not Punjab. It is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum basin.
✅ Pair 2 – Correct: Renuka Wetland is indeed located in Himachal Pradesh (Sirmaur district). It is a natural wetland with freshwater springs and inland subterranean karst formations.
✅ Pair 3 – Correct: Rudrasagar Lake is correctly matched with Tripura. It is a lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging into the River Gomti.
✅ Pair 4 – Incorrect: Sasthamkotta Lake is located in Kerala (Kollam district), not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala.
📝 Short Notes: Important Ramsar Wetlands of India
| Wetland/Lake | State | Key Features |
|---|---|---|
| Hokera Wetland | Jammu & Kashmir | Natural perennial wetland, contiguous to Jhelum basin |
| Renuka Wetland | Himachal Pradesh | Natural wetland with freshwater springs, Sirmaur district |
| Rudrasagar Lake | Tripura | Lowland sedimentation reservoir, feeds into River Gomti |
| Sasthamkotta Lake | Kerala | Largest freshwater lake in Kerala, Kollam district |
| Harike Wetland | Punjab | Confluence of Beas and Sutlej rivers |
| Loktak Lake | Manipur | Famous for Phumdis (floating islands) |
| Chilika Lake | Odisha | Largest brackish water lagoon in Asia |
| Keoladeo National Park | Rajasthan | Important bird sanctuary, Bharatpur |
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
- Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
- When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
- Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides species-specific protection based on scheduling, which applies uniformly regardless of location. Only Statement 2 is legally accurate, while Statements 1 and 3 contain critical inaccuracies regarding ownership and conditions for capture/killing.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Section 39 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act specifies that only animals in Schedules I to IV are government property; vermin species (Schedule V) are excluded, making the claim of 'sole property' legally incorrect.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Protected status under the Wildlife (Protection) Act is determined by the animal's listing in the Schedules and applies uniformly whether the animal is found inside Protected Areas or outside in human-dominated landscapes.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Section 11 requires the Chief Wildlife Warden to be satisfied that the animal 'has become dangerous' to human life (actual danger), not merely apprehended danger; mere fear or anticipation is insufficient legal ground for capture or killing.
📝 Short Notes: Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 - Key Provisions
| Schedule | Protection Level | Examples | Ownership (Sec 39) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Schedule I | Absolute protection; highest penalties | Tiger, Lion, Elephant, Black Buck | Government property |
| Schedule II | High protection | Assamese Macaque, Pig-tailed Macaque | Government property |
| Schedule III | Protected species | Hyena, Nilgai, Sambhar | Government property |
| Schedule IV | Protected species | Hares, Falcons, Magpie | Government property |
| Schedule V | Vermin (can be hunted) | Common Crow, Fruit Bats, Mice, Rats | NOT government property |
| Schedule VI | Cultivation prohibition | Specified plants | N/A |
- Section 11: Chief Wildlife Warden may permit capture/killing only when animal has become dangerous to human life or is disabled/diseased beyond recovery
- Section 39: Wild animals listed in Schedules I-IV are property of State/Central Government
- Protection applies uniformly: Inside and outside Protected Areas for all scheduled species
- Protected Areas: Include National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves, and Community Reserves
- Recent Amendment (2022): Introduced Schedule VI for prohibited plants and enhanced penalties
Consider the following statements:
- Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
- Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
- Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
This question tests factual knowledge about solar power installations in India. Only Statement 2 about Kerala's airport is correct, while the claims about Gujarat and Goa are factually incorrect.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan (not Gujarat) is the largest solar park in India with a capacity of 2,245 MW, making it one of the largest in the world.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Cochin International Airport in Kerala became the world's first fully solar-powered airport in 2015, generating power through its 46 MW solar plant spread across 45 acres.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project in Madhya Pradesh (not Goa) is the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India with a capacity of 600 MW.
📝 Short Notes: Major Solar Power Installations in India
| Project/Installation | Location | Capacity/Details | Significance |
|---|---|---|---|
| Bhadla Solar Park | Rajasthan | 2,245 MW | Largest solar park in India; one of the world's largest |
| Cochin International Airport | Kerala | 46 MW solar plant | World's first fully solar-powered airport (2015) |
| Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project | Madhya Pradesh | 600 MW | Largest floating solar project in India |
| Pavagada Solar Park | Karnataka | 2,050 MW | Second largest solar park in India |
| Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Park | Madhya Pradesh | 750 MW | One of the largest single-site solar plants |
UPSC Prelims 2022 - Environment & Ecology Chapter-wise Distribution
Sustainable Development
3 Qs (17.6%)Environmental Pollution
3 Qs (17.6%)Biodiversity and Conservation
2 Qs (11.8%)Environmental Governance in India
2 Qs (11.8%)Environment & Ecology Current Affairs
1 Qs (5.9%)Climate Change and Mitigation
1 Qs (5.9%)Environmental Reports, Indices & Organizations
1 Qs (5.9%)Fundamentals of Ecology
1 Qs (5.9%)Natural Resources & Conservation
1 Qs (5.9%)Renewable Energy & Green Technologies
1 Qs (5.9%)International Environmental Conventions & Organizations
1 Qs (5.9%)UPSC Prelims 2022 - Environment & Ecology Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Environment & Ecology questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2022?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Environment & Ecology in UPSC Prelims 2022?
- Sustainable Development: 3 questions (17.6%)
- Environmental Pollution: 3 questions (17.6%)
- Biodiversity and Conservation: 2 questions (11.8%)
- Environmental Governance in India: 2 questions (11.8%)
- Environment & Ecology Current Affairs: 1 questions (5.9%)
- Climate Change and Mitigation: 1 questions (5.9%)
- Environmental Reports, Indices & Organizations: 1 questions (5.9%)
- Fundamentals of Ecology: 1 questions (5.9%)
- Natural Resources & Conservation: 1 questions (5.9%)
- Renewable Energy & Green Technologies: 1 questions (5.9%)
- International Environmental Conventions & Organizations: 1 questions (5.9%)