UPSC Prelims 2012 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2012 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
- Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at the household level
- Purchasing power parity at the national level
- The extent of the budget deficit and GDP growth rate at the national level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) with UNDP measures deprivations across three dimensions: Health (nutrition, child mortality), Education (years of schooling, school attendance), and Standard of Living (assets and services like cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing) at the household level.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is a macroeconomic metric used to compare economic productivity between countries, not measured by the MPI which focuses on household-level deprivations.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Budget deficit and GDP growth rate are national-level macroeconomic indicators measuring fiscal and economic performance, not covered by the MPI which measures individual/household poverty dimensions.
Consider the following:
- Hotels and restaurants
- Motor transport undertakings
- Newspaper establishments
- Private medical institutions
The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under “Employees’ State Insurance Scheme’?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Hotels and restaurants employing 10 or more persons are covered under the ESI Scheme through state government extensions.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Road motor transport undertakings are explicitly included under ESI Act coverage via government notifications.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Newspaper establishments (non-factory) have been brought under ESI coverage by various state governments.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Private medical institutions employing 10 or more persons are covered under the ESI Scheme in most states and UTs.
The ESI Act, 1948 empowers the government to extend coverage beyond factories to all four establishment types listed.
The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is
- to promote institutional deliveries
- to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
- to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention launched in 2005 under NRHM to promote institutional deliveries and reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: JSY is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme that provides cash assistance to mothers to meet the cost of delivery, integrated with delivery and post-delivery care through ASHA workers.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Wage loss compensation due to pregnancy and confinement is provided under Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), not JSY.
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With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?
- Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
- Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
- Providing information on nutrition and immunization
- Conducting the delivery of the baby
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: ASHA workers accompany pregnant women to health facilities for antenatal care checkups, acting as a link between the community and healthcare services.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: ASHA workers are trained to use pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy as part of their basic health screening responsibilities.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Providing information on nutrition and immunization is a core responsibility of ASHA workers under NRHM to educate families about maternal and child health.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Conducting deliveries is outside the scope of ASHA workers' duties; this is performed by skilled birth attendants, ANMs, or doctors at health facilities.
How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
- By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agri-business centres in rural areas
- By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
- By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: NRLM (National Rural Livelihood Mission) does not set up manufacturing industries or agri-business centres; it focuses on social mobilization and building institutional platforms for the rural poor.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: NRLM's core strategy is strengthening Self-Help Groups (SHGs) through revolving funds, community investment funds, and providing skill development training via DDU-GKY (Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana).
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: NRLM does not provide seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets or micro-irrigation equipment free of cost; it promotes sustainable agriculture through financial inclusion and credit linkages.
How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
- DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
- DRDAs undertake the area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
- DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
- DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: DRDAs are registered societies under the Societies Registration Act, not Panchayati Raj Institutions; they function as administrative bodies coordinating with PRIs.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: DRDAs focus on planning, implementation, and monitoring of anti-poverty programmes; they do not conduct scientific studies on causes of poverty and malnutrition.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination to ensure effective implementation of rural development schemes and anti-poverty programmes.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: DRDAs monitor and ensure effective utilization of funds allocated for anti-poverty programmes with transparency and accountability.
Graphene is frequently in the news recently. What is its importance?
- It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity
- It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far
- It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency
- It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Graphene is a two-dimensional material consisting of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice, and it exhibits excellent electrical conductivity due to the mobility of electrons in its structure.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Graphene is one of the thinnest materials (only one atom thick) yet possesses extraordinary tensile strength — approximately 200 times stronger than steel — making it one of the strongest materials tested.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Graphene is composed entirely of carbon atoms, not silicon. However, it does possess high optical transparency (absorbs only ~2.3% of visible light).
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Due to its combination of electrical conductivity, optical transparency, and flexibility, graphene is highly suitable for use as conducting electrodes in touch screens, LCDs, and organic LEDs.
Consider the following statements - If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
- It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
- One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
- The blotting paper would fail to function
- The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the earth
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Kerosene lamps rely on capillary action to draw kerosene up the wick from the reservoir for combustion.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Drinking through a straw works by air pressure difference, not capillarity; sucking removes air, allowing atmospheric pressure to push liquid up.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Blotting paper absorbs ink/liquid through capillary action in its porous structure and fine fibres.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Tall trees depend on capillary action to transport water from roots to leaves against gravity through xylem vessels.
A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest antimatter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/implications of the creation of antimatter?
- It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
- It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of antimatter.
- It will help understand the evolution of the universe.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Antimatter production is extremely costly and impractical; it has no application in mineral prospecting or oil exploration, which rely on seismic surveys and remote sensing.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Discovery of anti-helium-4 nucleus provides a reference for space-based experiments like Alpha Magnetic Spectrometer (AMS) to search for antimatter in cosmic rays, helping probe the existence of antimatter stars and galaxies.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Studying heavy antimatter nuclei helps understand the matter-antimatter asymmetry puzzle—why the Big Bang produced a matter-dominated universe despite equal creation of both—crucial for understanding early universe evolution.
Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of the universe?
- Detection of microwaves in space
- Observation of the redshift phenomenon in space
- Movement of asteroids in space
- The occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) radiation is relic radiation from the Big Bang, discovered by Penzias and Wilson, providing strong evidence for the expanding universe model.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Redshift phenomenon shows that light from distant galaxies is stretched as they move away, demonstrating universal expansion as per Hubble's Law.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Asteroid movement is governed by local gravitational forces within solar systems and has no relevance to large-scale cosmic expansion.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Type Ia supernovae serve as standard candles for measuring cosmic distances, providing evidence for the universe's accelerated expansion and leading to the discovery of dark energy.
To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Thorium is approximately 3-4 times more abundant in nature than uranium, found widely in Earth's crust including monazite sands.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Thorium-232 can generate approximately 30 times more energy per unit mass than natural uranium when bred into fissile U-233.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Thorium fuel cycle produces significantly less long-lived radioactive waste and minimal plutonium, making waste management easier than uranium fuel cycle.
What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
- Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
- The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
- There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have an adverse impact on health.
- There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have an adverse effect on biodiversity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Bt brinjal is created by inserting the Cry1Ac gene from Bacillus thuringiensis, a soil bacterium, not a fungus, to provide resistance against the Brinjal Fruit and Shoot Borer (BFSB).
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Bt brinjal seeds are not terminator seeds; they do not contain Genetic Use Restriction Technology (GURT) that prevents seed saving and reuse.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Major resistance stems from apprehensions about adverse health impacts, including concerns about allergenicity, toxicity, and lack of long-term independent safety studies on human consumption.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: India is a center of origin and diversity for brinjal; concerns exist that cross-pollination with wild and local varieties could lead to genetic contamination and loss of indigenous biodiversity.
Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?
- To enable them to withstand drought
- To increase the nutritive value of the produce
- To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
- To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Drought-resistant crops like drought-tolerant maize and water-efficient rice have been developed by introducing genes that enable water conservation and stress tolerance.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Golden Rice (fortified with Vitamin A), iron-biofortified crops, and protein-enhanced legumes demonstrate increased nutritive value through genetic engineering.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Growing plants in spaceships and space stations relies on controlled environment agriculture, not genetic engineering; NASA experiments use conventional plant varieties adapted through breeding, not GM technology.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Flavr Savr tomato (first GM food approved in 1994) and other crops have been engineered with delayed ripening genes to increase shelf life and reduce post-harvest losses.
Consider the following kinds of organisms :
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Flowering plants
Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
Detailed Explanation:
Bacteria (e.g., Bacillus thuringiensis) produce toxins that kill specific insects and are widely used as biopesticides.
Fungi (e.g., Beauveria bassiana, Metarhizium anisopliae) infect and kill pests through parasitism.
Flowering plants (e.g., Chrysanthemum producing pyrethrin, Neem with azadirachtin) contain natural insecticidal compounds used as biopesticides.
All three organism types are employed as biopesticides.
With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Stem cells can be derived from mammals only
- Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs
- Stem cells can be used for medical therapies
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Stem cells are found in all multicellular organisms, not just mammals—including plants, vertebrates, and invertebrates.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Stem cells are used for drug screening by generating specific cell types to test safety and efficacy of new pharmaceutical compounds before clinical trials.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Stem cells have applications in regenerative medicine including bone marrow transplants for blood disorders and tissue/organ repair.
What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
- It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
- It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
- It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of the water.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: UV radiation damages the DNA/RNA of microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, protozoa), effectively inactivating or killing them and making it a powerful disinfection method in water purification.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: UV radiation does not remove odours from water; odour removal requires activated carbon filtration, aeration, or chemical treatment.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: UV radiation does not affect sedimentation, turbidity removal, or water clarity; these processes require coagulation, flocculation, and filtration.
Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
Detailed Explanation:
Earth's magnetic field (magnetosphere) acts as a protective shield, deflecting charged particles (solar wind, cosmic rays) toward the polar regions.
When these particles collide with atmospheric gases near the poles, they create auroras (Aurora Borealis and Aurora Australis), preventing direct surface exposure that would harm living organisms.
Lead, ingested or inhaled is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
- Smelting units
- Pens and pencils
- Paints
- Hair oils and cosmetics
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Smelting units release lead particles into air and soil during ore processing, making them a major source of environmental lead contamination.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Pencils contain graphite (carbon) and clay, not lead; the term "lead" is a historical misnomer.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Lead-based paints remain a significant hazard as deteriorating paint releases lead dust and chips that can be inhaled or ingested.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: While some traditional cosmetics (surma/kohl) may contain lead, standard hair oils and modern cosmetics are not primary sources of lead poisoning.
Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because:
Detailed Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi began a fast unto death on 20 September 1932 at Yerwada Jail to protest the Communal Award announced by British PM Ramsay MacDonald in August 1932.
The Award provided separate electorates for Depressed Classes (Dalits), which Gandhi opposed as he feared it would permanently divide Hindu society and hinder social integration; the fast ended with the Poona Pact (24 September 1932) between Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar, replacing separate electorates with reserved seats within joint electorates.
Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
- Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
- Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
- Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced dyarchy in the provinces, dividing subjects into Reserved (controlled by Governor and Executive Council) and Transferred (controlled by elected Indian ministers).
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Separate communal electorates for Muslims were introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms (Government of India Act, 1909), not the 1919 Act.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The 1919 Act introduced provincial legislative devolution through bicameralism at the Centre and expanded provincial legislatures with greater legislative powers.
UPSC Prelims 2012 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
UPSC Prelims 2012 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2012?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2012?
- Environment & Ecology: 19 questions (19%)
- Indian Polity: 19 questions (19%)
- Indian Economy: 12 questions (12%)
- Modern History: 11 questions (11%)
- Science & Technology: 10 questions (10%)
- Indian Geography: 8 questions (8%)
- World Geography: 6 questions (6%)
- Current Affairs: 6 questions (6%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 6 questions (6%)
- Ancient History: 3 questions (3%)