UPSC Prelims 2012 Question Paper
Explore the complete solved question paper for UPSC Prelims 2012 featuring 100 solved questions with bilingual (English & Hindi) explanations, official answer key, and subject weightage breakdown.
What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
- While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
- The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
- The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
- All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 124(2) mandates that the President must consult the Chief Justice of India (CJI) while appointing Supreme Court Judges, ensuring judicial say in appointments.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Supreme Court Judges can only be removed by the President through impeachment after an address by Parliament with special majority (majority of total membership + two-thirds of present and voting), not by the CJI.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 146(3) provides that salaries and allowances of Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, requiring no legislative vote, ensuring financial independence from Parliament.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Article 146(2) states that appointments of officers and staff are made by the CJI or officers appointed by the CJI, not by the Government.
With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
- The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
- When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 329(a) of the Constitution and the Delimitation Commission Act, the orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in any court of law. They have the force of law and are final to prevent judicial delays in the electoral process.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: When the orders are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, these bodies cannot modify them. The orders are placed for information only, ensuring the independence and finality of the delimitation process, free from political interference.
The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the -
Detailed Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced the three-tier division of powers into Federal List, Provincial List, and Concurrent List, which directly inspired the current Union List, State List, and Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution (Seventh Schedule).
This federal structure with detailed distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States was a novel feature borrowed from the 1935 Act, making it the blueprint for India's federal governance framework.
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The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
Detailed Explanation:
Article 75(5) of the Constitution states that a minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament for six consecutive months ceases to be a minister at the expiration of that period.
Since the Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers, this provision applies—meaning the PM need not be a member at appointment but must become a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha within six months, failing which he/she ceases to hold office.
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :
- Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
- Organizing village Panchayats
- Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
- Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code) is a Liberal-Intellectual principle, not a Gandhian principle.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 40 (organizing village panchayats) is a Gandhian principle reflecting Gandhi's vision of self-governance at the village level.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 43 (promoting cottage industries in rural areas) is a Gandhian principle emphasizing rural economic self-reliance.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Article 43 (securing leisure and cultural opportunities for workers) is a Socialist principle, not a Gandhian principle.
Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Option 2 – Correct: Article 249 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority of members present and voting) enabling Parliament to legislate on State List subjects in national interest. Article 312 empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution (by 2/3rd majority) authorizing Parliament to create All India Services.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Article 3 grants power to Parliament (both Houses) to alter boundaries/names of states, not an exclusive power of Rajya Sabha.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Presidential election procedure amendment requires Constitutional Amendment (Article 368) by both Houses; President's pension is determined by Parliament (both Houses) under Article 59(3).
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Article 324(2) empowers the President (not Rajya Sabha) to determine the number of Election Commissioners; their conditions of service are regulated by Parliament (both Houses).
Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
- A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
- A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or Legislature of a State
- A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
- A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 131 grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court over disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Election disputes regarding Parliament or State Legislature are handled by High Courts and Election Tribunals, not under Supreme Court's original jurisdiction.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Union Territories are not included in Article 131; original jurisdiction covers only disputes involving States.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Article 131 provides original jurisdiction for disputes between two or more States.
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
- He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
- He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
- If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Speaker does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. He/she is elected by the Lok Sabha and can be removed only by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members of the House. The Speaker continues in office even after dissolution of the Lok Sabha until immediately before the first meeting of the new House.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Under Article 93, the Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of election. The six-month membership rule applies to Ministers (Article 75), not to the Speaker or Deputy Speaker.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: As per Article 94(b), the Speaker resigns by writing under his/her hand addressed to the Deputy Speaker. Similarly, the Deputy Speaker's resignation is addressed to the Speaker.
Consider the following crops of India :
- Groundnut
- Sesamum
- Pearl millet
Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Groundnut is predominantly rainfed (75-80% of area), mainly cultivated during Kharif season in states like Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Sesamum (Til) is a drought-tolerant oilseed grown predominantly under rainfed conditions in West Bengal, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Pearl millet (Bajra) is a hardy cereal crop exceptionally suited to arid and semi-arid regions, cultivated almost entirely under rainfed conditions in Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
Detailed Explanation:
Carbon, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen are the primary elements responsible for the origin of life on Earth.
Carbon forms the backbone of all organic molecules, while Hydrogen and Nitrogen are essential for creating amino acids, nucleic acids (DNA/RNA), and proteins — the fundamental building blocks of life.
Consider the following crops of India :
- Cowpea
- Green gram
- Pigeon pea
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Cowpea is used as pulse (Lobia for consumption), fodder (high-protein livestock feed), and green manure (rapid nitrogen fixation).
✅ Green gram serves as pulse (Moong dal), fodder (plant residues post-harvest), and green manure (short-duration soil enrichment crop).
✅ Pigeon pea functions as pulse (Arhar/Tur), fodder (leaves and pods), and green manure (nitrogen enhancement in intercropping systems).
All three crops serve triple purposes.
Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
Detailed Explanation:
Tropical Savannah Climate (Köppen classification Aw) is characterized by a distinct wet season (summer months with heavy rainfall) and a distinct dry season (winter months with little to no rainfall).
This climate is found in regions like the African Savannah, Brazilian Cerrado, and parts of India, where the seasonal migration of ITCZ (Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone) causes alternating wet and dry periods.
A particular State in India has the following characteristics :
- It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
- It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
- Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.
Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
Detailed Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh is located between 26°28'N to 29°30'N latitude, which overlaps with northern Rajasthan (around 27°N).
Forest cover exceeds 80% (approximately 79-80% officially, highest among Indian states), with over 12% of its geographical area under Protected Area Network (national parks and wildlife sanctuaries like Namdapha).
Assam has only ~36% forest cover; Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand lie on different latitudes (31-33°N) compared to northern Rajasthan.
Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?
Detailed Explanation:
Mixed farming is an agricultural system where crop cultivation and livestock rearing are practised together on the same farm.
The animals provide manure for crops while crops provide fodder for animals, creating an integrated farming system; this is distinct from mixed cropping (growing multiple crops simultaneously) or crop rotation (sequential planting).
Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because
- the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
- there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
- the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The atmosphere is transparent to incoming solar radiation but is primarily heated from below by long-wave terrestrial radiation emitted from Earth's surface, making lower layers warmer.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Water vapor and moisture are concentrated in the lower atmosphere (troposphere), not the upper atmosphere, which is significantly drier.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: At higher altitudes, air pressure decreases making air less dense; rising air expands and undergoes adiabatic cooling, and thinner air has lower capacity to absorb and retain heat.
Consider the following factors:
- Rotation of the Earth
- Air pressure and wind
- The density of ocean water
- Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Rotation of the Earth causes the Coriolis effect, which deflects ocean currents to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Air pressure and wind generate wind-driven currents by exerting friction on the ocean surface; prevailing winds like Trade Winds and Westerlies drive major surface currents.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Density of ocean water, determined by temperature and salinity, drives thermohaline circulation (deep ocean currents).
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Revolution of the Earth (orbit around the Sun) causes seasonal changes but does not directly influence ocean currents.
A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the:
Detailed Explanation:
Polaris (Pole Star) is always located in the northern direction in the Northern Hemisphere.
To walk east, a person must face east with north on the left side; therefore, keeping the Pole Star to the left ensures eastward movement.
When you travel to the Himalayas, you will see the following :
- Deep gorges
- U-turn river courses
- Parallel mountain ranges
- Steep gradients causing land-sliding
Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for the Himalayas being young fold mountains?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Deep gorges form due to intense vertical erosion by rivers cutting through rapidly rising young mountains; the Kali Gandaki Gorge exemplifies this feature of active orogeny.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: U-turn river courses (sharp bends) occur due to rugged topography and ongoing tectonic uplift forcing rivers to change direction abruptly.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Parallel mountain ranges (Greater, Lesser, Outer Himalayas) are characteristic of fold mountain systems formed by compression of sedimentary layers during continental collision.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Steep gradients combined with unconsolidated young rocks and active seismic activity make the Himalayas highly prone to landslides.
If the National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
- Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
- The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
- All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.
- The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The National Water Mission (NWM) explicitly includes urban water recycling and reuse as a key strategy to meet part of the water needs of urban areas and reduce dependency on freshwater sources.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The NWM promotes adoption of desalination technologies for coastal cities facing water scarcity, particularly where alternative freshwater sources are inadequate.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The interlinking of rivers is a separate project under the National Perspective Plan, not part of the NWM's mandate, which focuses on water conservation and efficient use.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: The NWM emphasizes sustainable groundwater management and promotes efficiency, but does not include financial reimbursement schemes for farmers' bore-well and pump-set expenses.
Consider the following areas:
- Bandipur
- Bhitarkanika
- Manas
- Sunderbans
Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?
Detailed Explanation:
Bandipur (Karnataka) – Declared a Tiger Reserve in 1973 under Project Tiger; one of India's first nine tiger reserves.
Bhitarkanika (Odisha) – A wetland and mangrove ecosystem known for saltwater crocodiles and bird diversity; NOT a Tiger Reserve.
Manas (Assam) – A Tiger Reserve, National Park, UNESCO World Heritage Site, Elephant Reserve, and Biosphere Reserve.
Sunderbans (West Bengal) – A Tiger Reserve famous for Royal Bengal Tigers adapted to mangrove habitat; also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Therefore, 1, 3 and 4 only are Tiger Reserves.
UPSC Prelims 2012 Questions Paper - Subject-wise Question Distribution
UPSC Prelims 2012 Question Paper - FAQs & Analysis
Q1 How many total questions were asked in UPSC Prelims 2012?
Q2 What is the subject-wise question breakdown for UPSC Prelims 2012?
- Environment & Ecology: 19 questions (19%)
- Indian Polity: 19 questions (19%)
- Indian Economy: 12 questions (12%)
- Modern History: 11 questions (11%)
- Science & Technology: 10 questions (10%)
- Indian Geography: 8 questions (8%)
- Current Affairs: 6 questions (6%)
- Indian Art & Culture: 6 questions (6%)
- World Geography: 6 questions (6%)
- Ancient History: 3 questions (3%)