71st BPSC Prelims 2025
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 14 solved 71st BPSC Prelims 2025 Indian Polity questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both High Court and Supreme Court?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and other legal rights, while Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs specifically for enforcement of fundamental rights.
❌ Option 1 – Incorrect: Disputes among States fall under Article 131 (original jurisdiction of Supreme Court only).
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: Disputes between Centre and State also fall under Article 131 (exclusive to Supreme Court).
✅ Option 3 – Correct: Protection of fundamental rights is a shared jurisdiction—High Courts under Article 226 and Supreme Court under Article 32.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Protection from violation of the Constitution is primarily through judicial review by Supreme Court under Article 13, 32, 136; High Courts have limited role.
What is true about Censure Motion?
Detailed Explanation:
Censure Motion differs from No-Confidence Motion in three key aspects: it must state specific reasons for criticism, requires permission of the Speaker to be moved, and does not compel the government to resign if passed.
✅ Option 1 – Correct: Censure Motion is indeed different from No-Confidence Motion in procedure and consequences.
❌ Option 2 – Incorrect: They are procedurally distinct motions.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Specific reasons must be mentioned in a Censure Motion.
❌ Option 4 – Incorrect: Speaker's permission is mandatory before moving the motion.
What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
Detailed Explanation:
Panchayati Raj is a system of decentralized governance established by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to promote grassroots democracy.
Its primary purpose is to enable people's participation in development administration at the village, block, and district levels through local self-governance. While increased employment, agricultural production, and political awareness may be outcomes, the core objective is participatory development where communities directly plan and implement their own development programs.
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Who is empowered to review financial position of the Panchayats?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 243-I of the Constitution mandates that the Governor shall constitute a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats.
The Finance Commission recommends distribution of taxes between the State and Panchayats, principles for grants-in-aid from the State's Consolidated Fund, and measures to improve Panchayats' financial health.
Consider the following statements:
- The summoning of the House means convocation
- Prorogation ends a session
- Dissolution terminates a House
- Prorogation of a session can be effected by the leader of the House alone Out of these which is not true?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Summoning means calling the House to meet, also known as convocation, under Article 85.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Prorogation ends a session of Parliament but the House continues to exist.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Dissolution terminates the entire Lok Sabha (not applicable to Rajya Sabha).
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Prorogation is ordered only by the President (not the leader of the House) under Article 85(2).
Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the finance commission?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission by the President every five years.
Parliament determines the qualifications of members and the manner of their selection through law, enacted as the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951.
The President only appoints members based on qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
The constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights, but reasonableness must keep in mind that:
- The interest of the general public is safeguarded
- Prevailing social values and also social needs are not bar
- Directive principles can be bypassed
- Collective good is not greater Out of these:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2)-(6) must safeguard general public interest, ensuring that individual liberty does not harm collective welfare.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Prevailing social values and needs are part of the reasonableness test (State of Madras v. V.G. Row, 1952), meaning they do act as a bar/constraint, not "not a bar".
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Directive Principles cannot be bypassed; courts seek to harmonize them with Fundamental Rights (Minerva Mills case, 1980).
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Collective good is often considered greater than individual rights when imposing reasonable restrictions for public interest.
What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Advocate General has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the State Legislature but cannot vote (Article 177).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 210 mandates that business in the State Legislature shall be transacted in the official language of the state, or in Hindi, or in English.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Article 211 prohibits discussion on the conduct of High Court judges in the State Legislature, except during a removal motion.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: Article 212 bars courts from questioning the validity of proceedings on grounds of procedural irregularities.
Consider the following statements about Central Government:
- Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary.
- Every Minister is allocated Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Out of these:
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Under Article 77 and Allocation of Business Rules, 1961, the President creates, merges, or reorganizes ministries and departments, not the Prime Minister with Cabinet Secretary. The PM only recommends.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: As per Articles 74 and 75, the President allocates portfolios (ministries) to ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which pair is not correctly matched?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Option 1 – Correct: Forms of oath are prescribed in the 3rd Schedule of the Constitution (for Ministers, MPs, Judges, etc.).
✅ Option 2 – Correct: Allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is detailed in the 4th Schedule.
❌ Option 3 – Incorrect: Administration of scheduled areas is governed by the 5th Schedule, not the 6th. The 6th Schedule deals with administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils.
✅ Option 4 – Correct: The Union List is part of the 7th Schedule, which contains three lists (Union, State, Concurrent).
Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles?
- Organization of Village Panchayats
- Common Civil Code
- Promotion of cottage Industry in rural areas
- Right to work
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Gandhian: Organization of Village Panchayats (Article 40) is based on Gram Swaraj, Gandhi's vision of village self-governance.
✅ Statement 3 – Gandhian: Promotion of cottage industry in rural areas (Article 43) reflects Gandhi's emphasis on self-reliance and decentralized economy.
❌ Statement 2 – Not Gandhian: Common Civil Code (Article 44) is a Liberal-Intellectual principle aimed at national integration and legal uniformity.
❌ Statement 4 – Not Gandhian: Right to work (Article 41) is a Socialist principle borrowed from Irish Constitution, focusing on state-provided employment security.
Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to concurrent list?
- Protection of wildlife 2067
- Income on Agriculture
- Tax on Electricity consumption or sale
- Price control Out of these:
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Protection of wildlife and wild animals is listed in Entry 17B of the Concurrent List, added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Tax on agricultural income falls under Entry 46 of the State List, making it a state subject exclusively.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Tax on consumption or sale of electricity is covered under Entry 53 of the State List, not the Concurrent List.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Price control is part of Entry 33 of the Concurrent List (trade and commerce in foodstuffs, cattle fodder, raw cotton, and raw jute).
Which of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 76(2) mandates the Attorney General to advise the Government of India (including the President) on legal matters referred to him.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in India, not just the Supreme Court, as per Article 76(3).
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: He can speak and participate in proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, their joint sittings, and any parliamentary committee, but cannot vote (Article 88).
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Attorney General is not a full-time government servant; he can engage in private legal practice provided it does not involve appearing against the Government.
The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:
Detailed Explanation:
Article 98 of the Constitution governs the secretariat of each House of Parliament.
The President appoints the secretarial staff of the Lok Sabha after consultation with the Speaker, ensuring parliamentary independence from executive control.
Similarly, for Rajya Sabha, the President consults the Chairman before appointment.
71st BPSC Prelims 2025 - Indian Polity Chapter-wise Distribution
Parliament
4 Qs (28.6%)Local Government
2 Qs (14.3%)Union Executive
2 Qs (14.3%)Constitutional Bodies
1 Qs (7.1%)Supreme Court
1 Qs (7.1%)Centre-State Relations
1 Qs (7.1%)Directive Principles of State Policy
1 Qs (7.1%)State Government
1 Qs (7.1%)Fundamental Rights
1 Qs (7.1%)71st BPSC Prelims 2025 - Indian Polity Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Polity questions were asked in 71st BPSC Prelims 2025?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Polity in 71st BPSC Prelims 2025?
- Parliament: 4 questions (28.6%)
- Local Government: 2 questions (14.3%)
- Union Executive: 2 questions (14.3%)
- Constitutional Bodies: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Supreme Court: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Centre-State Relations: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Directive Principles of State Policy: 1 questions (7.1%)
- State Government: 1 questions (7.1%)
- Fundamental Rights: 1 questions (7.1%)