UPSC CSAT 2026
CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 80 solved UPSC CSAT 2026 CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
Two identical straight rods are painted in five distinct colours so that each of them gets divided into five equal parts along the length. In one of them, the portions are marked P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5 (not necessarily in that order) whereas in the other, they are marked Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4 and Q5 (not necessarily in that order). When the rods are kept parallel to each other side by side, P1 and Q3 match, P4 matches Q1 or Q2, and Q4 matches P3 or P5. If Q3 and Q5 are adjacent, which of the following is/are possible?
I. Q3 is marked at the middle portion of the straight rod.
II. P2 is marked at one of the extreme portions of the straight rod.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Two identical rods painted in five distinct colours mean the colour sequence is identical on both. When portions "match," they share the same position and colour. Given three matching pairs (P1-Q3, P4 with Q1/Q2, Q4 with P3/P5), the rods must be perfectly aligned in the same direction.
We need to check if both statements are possible under the constraint that Q3 and Q5 are adjacent. Testing an arrangement: Position 1: P2-Q2; Position 2: P3-Q4; Position 3: P1-Q3; Position 4: P5-Q5; Position 5: P4-Q1. This satisfies all conditions: P1 matches Q3 (Pos 3), P4 matches Q1 (Pos 5), Q4 matches P3 (Pos 2), and Q3-Q5 are adjacent (Pos 3-4).
Therefore, Q3 is at the middle (Statement I possible) and P2 is at an extreme (Statement II possible), making Option 3 the correct answer.
A person facing the East travels 4 km straight and then turns right and travels 3 km, then further turns left and travels 2 km and finally turns left and travels 3 km. The minimum distance between the final point and the initial point, and the direction in which the person is facing at the final point are, respectively
Detailed Explanation:
Starting at origin (0,0) facing East: moves 4 km East → (4,0), turns right (South) → moves 3 km South → (4,−3), turns left (East) → moves 2 km East → (6,−3), turns left (North) → moves 3 km North → (6,0).
Minimum distance from origin = √[(6−0)² + (0−0)²] = 6 km. Final direction: North.
Therefore, the answer is 6 km and North, making Option 4 the correct answer.
Consider the following statements: Every red is blue. Every blue is green. Every green is yellow.
Which of the following statements denoted by P, Q and R are correct? P. Every blue is yellow. Q. Every red is green. R. Every red is yellow.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Chain of relationships: Red ⊂ Blue ⊂ Green ⊂ Yellow. Every red is blue, every blue is green, every green is yellow—this creates a transitive chain.
Statement P (Every blue is yellow): Blue ⊂ Green and Green ⊂ Yellow ⇒ Blue ⊂ Yellow. Correct.
Statement Q (Every red is green): Red ⊂ Blue and Blue ⊂ Green ⇒ Red ⊂ Green. Correct.
Statement R (Every red is yellow): Red ⊂ Blue ⊂ Green ⊂ Yellow ⇒ Red ⊂ Yellow. Correct.
Therefore, all three statements P, Q, and R are logically valid, making Option 4 the correct answer.
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Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G travel by three cars X, Y, Z. A and another two of them travel by X. Only E travels with G. C travels by Z, but B does not travel by Y. Besides, A and B do not travel by the same car. Then which of the following are correct?
I. No one travels alone.
II. Only D travels with F.
III. Only C travels with B.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Given constraints: A travels in X with two others; only E travels with G (meaning E and G are alone together); C travels in Z; B doesn't travel in Y; A and B don't share a car.
Logical deduction: Since B ≠ Y and B ≠ A's car (X), B must be in Z with C. E and G form a pair alone, so they occupy Y. The remaining persons D and F join A in X, giving us: X = {A, D, F}, Y = {E, G}, Z = {B, C}.
Evaluating statements: I is correct—no car has a single person. II is incorrect—D doesn't travel only with F; A is also in X. III is correct—B's only companion is C in Z.
Therefore, statements I and III are correct, making Option 2 the correct answer.
A cut on a solid object divides the object into two parts where the new surfaces thus produced are plane. On the other hand, one single cut can be used to cut more than one object at a time. In an experiment, the total number of pieces produced by applying $n$ cuts is denoted by $x_n$. The experiment is performed on a solid cube where pieces remain unmoved after each cut. In this experiment, if after the third cut, the pieces are identical, then which of the following is not a possible value for $x_4$?
Detailed Explanation:
After three cuts producing identical pieces, the fourth cut increases the total by the number of pieces it intersects: x₄ = x₃ + (pieces cut by 4th plane).
For x₄ = 5: Three parallel cuts yield 4 identical slabs; the 4th cut intersects 1 slab → 4+1=5. For x₄ = 8: Same 4 slabs, 4th cut intersects all 4 → 4+4=8. For x₄ = 12: Three cuts yield 6 identical pieces; 4th cut intersects all 6 → 6+6=12. For x₄ = 16: Requires x₃=8 (a 2×2×2 cube arrangement) and the 4th cut intersecting all 8 pieces. However, a single plane cannot pass through the interiors of all 8 corner cubes in a 2×2×2 arrangement simultaneously.
Therefore, 16 is geometrically impossible, making Option 1 the correct answer.
If ZERO is encoded as ADSN, then how do you encode STOP?
Detailed Explanation:
In the encoding pattern, ZERO → ADSN reveals an alternating shift: 1st and 3rd letters shift forward (+1) in the alphabet, while 2nd and 4th letters shift backward (−1). Verify: Z→A(+1), E→D(−1), R→S(+1), O→N(−1).
Applying this pattern to STOP: S→T(+1), T→S(−1), O→P(+1), P→O(−1), yielding TSPO.
Therefore, the encoded form is TSPO, making Option 2 the correct answer.
Consider the following three statements, namely S1, S2 and S3 :
S1. Protecting the environment is an existential exigency for humans, given the impact of environmental degradation on climate change.
S2. Scientific consensus has not been achieved with regard to the extent of the contribution of human intervention to climate change.
S3. Environmental activism includes climate alarmism and other extremist points of view that often become the focus of climate change deniers.
Which of the following relationships based on the statements given above is/are correct?
- S3 is a counterpoint to S1
- S3 is unconnected to S1 and S2
- S2 could be the reason for S3
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
S1 asserts environmental protection is existentially necessary due to climate change. S2 notes lack of consensus on human contribution extent. S3 observes that activism includes alarmism, which deniers exploit.
Relationship 1 is Incorrect: S3 does not counter S1's necessity argument—it only critiques activism tactics. Relationship 2 is Incorrect: S3 directly connects to S2; uncertainty in consensus creates space for both alarmism and denial. Relationship 3 is Correct: S2's lack of consensus logically enables the phenomena described in S3—activists overcompensate with alarmism, deniers exploit uncertainty.
Therefore, only Relationship 3 is valid, making Option 4 the correct answer.
You are required to design a 'questionnaire' to be filled on-location by visitors, based on the following objective while writing a report :
"To determine the feasibility of setting up a family-oriented vacation resort in the vicinity of a lake destination in the mountains"
Which of the following heads would you include in the questionnaire to make it most appropriate for your purpose?
- Size of family
- Budget
- Number of earners in the family
- Food allergies and dietary restrictions
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Feasibility of a family-oriented resort requires understanding visitor demographics and spending capacity. Size of family (1) is essential for planning room layouts and family amenities. Budget (2) directly determines pricing strategy and financial viability.
Number of earners (3) is redundant when actual budget is already captured. Food allergies/dietary restrictions (4) are operational details for post-booking, not macro-level feasibility assessment.
Therefore, only 1 and 2 are appropriate for feasibility assessment, making Option 3 the correct answer.
A pattern formed by two characters $a$ and $b$ is repeated more than once in the following string :
$x , b , x , a , x , a , x , x , a , x , a , x , b , a , b$
What is $x , x$ in the 7th and 8th positions from the left in the above string?
Detailed Explanation:
The string has 15 positions. A pattern repeated more than once with length 5 fits perfectly (repeated 3 times).
The last 5 known characters are: a, x, b, a, b. Testing this as the repeating pattern and solving for x values: the pattern must be a, b, b, a, b.
Repeating a, b, b, a, b three times gives: a, b, b, a, b, a, b, b, a, b, a, b, b, a, b. Positions 7 and 8 are both b.
Therefore, x, x at positions 7 and 8 is bb, making Option 4 the correct answer.
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Tool of communication)
- Memorandum
- Flyer
- Bcc
- Minutes
List-II (Purpose)
- To record decisions
- To inform confidentially
- To intimate a directive
- To disseminate non-targeted information
Detailed Explanation:
Memorandum is used to intimate directives or official communications within organizations (A-3). Flyers disseminate non-targeted information to the general public (B-4). Bcc (Blind Carbon Copy) informs recipients confidentially without others knowing (C-2). Minutes are official records of meeting decisions and discussions (D-1).
Therefore, the correct matching is A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1, making Option 3 the correct answer.
Which among the following actions would constitute the most appropriate directive(s) in resolving interpersonal conflict in an office with culturally diverse personnel?
- Direct personnel to practise activities that are the cultural markers of diverse groups
- Allow conflicts to resolve naturally over time to set an appropriate precedent of leadership
- Encourage personnel to seek each other's perspectives
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Effective conflict resolution in culturally diverse workplaces requires active empathy and perspective-taking, not forced cultural participation or passive inaction.
- Statement 1 is Incorrect: Directing personnel to practice cultural markers is artificial, addresses no root cause, and may breed resentment or cultural appropriation.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect: Allowing conflicts to resolve naturally is passive leadership that risks escalation, toxicity, and reduced productivity in diverse teams.
- Statement 3 is Correct: Encouraging personnel to seek each other's perspectives fosters empathy, active listening, mutual respect, and collaborative resolution of misunderstandings.
- Therefore, only Statement 3 is appropriate, making Option 3 the correct answer.
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Barrier to communication)
- Semantic
- Cognitive
- Organisational
- Affective
List-II (Example)
- Lack of feedback
- Misunderstanding the meaning of a word
- Fear of social stigma
- Information overload
Detailed Explanation:
Semantic barrier (A) relates to language/word meaning issues—misunderstanding the meaning of a word (2) is the classic example.
Cognitive barrier (B) involves mental processing limits—information overload (4) overwhelms cognitive capacity. Organisational barrier (C) stems from structural/hierarchical issues—lack of feedback (1) reflects poor communication channels. Affective barrier (D) involves emotions/attitudes—fear of social stigma (3) is an emotional block to open communication.
Therefore, matching A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3, making Option 4 the correct answer.
With reference to 'circular letters', which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Circular letters are usually addressed to a group of people.
- Non-standard and customized content is typical of circular letters.
- Circular letters are used to intimate appraisals and increments of employees within organisations.
- Circular letters are less cost-effective than personalised and specific recipient-directed letters.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Circular letters are formal documents designed for mass communication to a large group (employees, customers, shareholders) to convey general announcements, policies, or updates.
- Statement 1 is Correct: Circular letters are addressed to a group of people, not individuals.
- Statement 2 is Incorrect: Circular letters contain standard, uniform content for all recipients; customization is a feature of personalized letters.
- Statement 3 is Incorrect: Appraisals and increments are confidential, individualized matters communicated through personalized letters, never through general circulars.
- Statement 4 is Incorrect: Circular letters are highly cost-effective as the same message is duplicated for multiple recipients without customization.
- Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option 4 the correct answer.
Eight persons $P$, $Q$, $R$, $S$, $T$, $U$, $V$ and $W$ sit around a round table in eight different seats placed with equal distance between any two consecutive seats. Both $P$ and $R$ are adjacent to $Q$. Both $T$ and $R$ are adjacent to $S$. Both $U$ and $W$ are adjacent to $V$. $S$ and $W$ are on opposite chairs. If while going in the clockwise direction around the table from $P$, one meets $R$ before $T$, then how many persons shall $Q$ cross while moving in the clockwise direction around the table before meeting $W$?
Detailed Explanation:
Constraints: P-Q-R are consecutive (Q between P & R); T-S-R are consecutive (S between T & R); U-V-W are consecutive (V between U & W); S and W are opposite (4 seats apart in 8-seat circle); moving clockwise from P, R comes before T.
This gives us a 5-person block P-Q-R-S-T and a 3-person block. Since S and W are opposite and clockwise from P we meet R before T, we get: Position 1:P, 2:Q, 3:R, 4:S, 5:T, 6:U, 7:V, 8:W (S at 4, W at 8 = opposite).
Moving clockwise from Q(2) to W(8), Q crosses positions 3,4,5,6,7 = R, S, T, U, V = 5 persons.
Therefore, Q crosses 5 persons, making Option 1 the correct answer.
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Relationship category)
- Between cricket captain and team members
- Between judge and lawyers in court
- Between Vice Chancellor and Deputy Registrar
- Between peers and coworkers
List-II (Communication type)
- Informal and firm
- Informal and open-ended
- Formal and open-ended
- Formal and firm
Code :
Detailed Explanation:
A. Cricket captain and team members: Informal setting but requires firm instructions for strategy and decisions → Informal and firm (1).
B. Judge and lawyers in court: Highly formal courtroom environment with firm authority and rules → Formal and firm (4).
C. Vice Chancellor and Deputy Registrar: Formal administrative hierarchy but involves collaborative, policy-level discussions → Formal and open-ended (3).
D. Peers and coworkers: Informal lateral relationship with brainstorming and casual exchanges → Informal and open-ended (2).
Therefore, the correct matching is A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2, making Option 2 the correct answer.
$X$ receives three coins of different denominations : $1$, $2$, $5$, $10$ and $20$. If the total amount received by $X$ is $m$, does $X$ receive a coin of denomination $5$? Statement I : $m$ is not a prime number. Statement II : The sum of the digits of $m$ is greater than $5$.
Detailed Explanation:
List all possible combinations of three different coins: 1+2+5=8, 1+2+10=13, 1+2+20=23, 1+5+10=16, 1+5+20=26, 1+10+20=31, 2+5+10=17, 2+5+20=27, 2+10+20=32, 5+10+20=35.
Statement I: Non-prime values are 8, 16, 26, 27, 32, 35—includes 32 (2+10+20) which lacks denomination 5, so insufficient. Statement II: Values with digit sum >5 are 8, 16, 17, 26, 27, 35—all include denomination 5, so sufficient.
Therefore, Statement II alone answers the question but Statement I does not, making Option 1 the correct answer.
$X$ is a collection of certain odd numbers whereas $Y$ is a collection of certain even numbers. $T$ consists of the numbers all of which are either from $X$ or from $Y$. Is every number of $T$ from $Y$? Statement I : The sum of any two numbers belonging to $T$ is even. Statement II : If both $p$ and $q$ are picked from $T$, then $(p - 1)q$ is even.
Detailed Explanation:
Statement I: Sum of any two numbers in T is even → all numbers have same parity (all even OR all odd). Example: T = {2,4} (all from Y) or T = {1,3} (all from X). Insufficient alone.
Statement II: (p-1)q is even for any p,q from T → satisfied when all are even (q even) OR all are odd (p-1 even). Example: T = {2,4} or T = {1,3}. Insufficient alone.
Both together: Both statements allow T to be entirely even (every number from Y) OR entirely odd (no number from Y). Cannot determine definitively.
Therefore, the question cannot be answered even using both statements, making Option 4 the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- If an offence has no minimum prescribed punishment, it cannot be considered heinous as per the JJ Act, 2015.
- As per the JJ Act, 2021, an offence for which there is a provision for a maximum sentence of seven years or more, but no minimum sentence, is to be considered a serious offence.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
The passage explicitly defines a heinous offence as one with a minimum punishment of seven years, and states that offences without a prescribed minimum punishment (like culpable homicide) are not heinous offences.
- Statement 1 is Correct: Absence of minimum prescribed punishment disqualifies an offence from being classified as heinous under JJ Act, 2015.
- Statement 2 is Correct: The 2021 amendment categorises offences with no minimum but maximum sentence of seven years or more as serious offences.
- Therefore, both statements are directly supported by the passage, making Option 3 the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The convergence model divides nations into three phases of economic progress.
- At the heart of the convergence theory is the closing of the gap between labour and productivity.
- Technology leaders typically have arrived earlier at different economic eras.
- The time period covered by the convergence theory presented herein encompasses, as mentioned, 4012200 years.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
The passage states convergence theory explains how countries close the labour-productivity gap with technology leaders, making this central to the theory (Statement 2 is correct). The model divides economic eras into three phases, not nations (Statement 1 is incorrect).
Technology leaders advance first during the breakaway phase when their per capita income rises while followers' income remains unchanged, confirming leaders arrive earlier at different economic eras (Statement 3 is correct). The time periods mentioned (3 MYA, 1 MYA, 12,000 years ago, 200+ years ago) are separate historical reference points for different technologies, not a cumulative total (Statement 4 is incorrect).
Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct, making Option 2 the correct answer.
Which of the following assumptions is/are valid?
- Agricultural productivity has marched ahead in the West because of the economies of scale facilitated by the adoption of AI tools.
- Affordable AI tools rendered available in local languages can help AI-based solutions reach more and more small farmers.
- Though penetration is as yet low, critical application areas deploying AI tools are already in use in India.
Select the answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
Evaluate each statement against the passage:
- Statement 1 is Invalid: The passage mentions AI tools have started offering precision farming in the West, but does not claim agricultural productivity "marched ahead" because of AI—this causal link is unsupported.
- Statement 2 is Valid: The passage explicitly recommends developing Indian language-based AI tools and affordable solutions to enable "at-scale integration and accessibility" for smallholder farmers.
- Statement 3 is Valid: The passage clearly states "India is starting to deploy AI for critical use cases" like weather forecasting and pest detection, though penetration remains limited.
- Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are valid, making Option 4 the correct answer.
UPSC CSAT 2026 - CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) Chapter-wise Distribution
Reading Comprehension
23 Qs (28.8%)Number System
19 Qs (23.8%)Arithmetic
11 Qs (13.8%)Analytical Ability
9 Qs (11.3%)Logical Reasoning
7 Qs (8.8%)Data Sufficiency
4 Qs (5%)Algebra
3 Qs (3.8%)Decision Making & Problem Solving
2 Qs (2.5%)General Mental Ability
1 Qs (1.3%)Data Interpretation
1 Qs (1.3%)UPSC CSAT 2026 - CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) Questions FAQs
Q1 How many CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) questions were asked in UPSC CSAT 2026?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test) in UPSC CSAT 2026?
- Reading Comprehension: 23 questions (28.8%)
- Number System: 19 questions (23.8%)
- Arithmetic: 11 questions (13.8%)
- Analytical Ability: 9 questions (11.3%)
- Logical Reasoning: 7 questions (8.8%)
- Data Sufficiency: 4 questions (5%)
- Algebra: 3 questions (3.8%)
- Decision Making & Problem Solving: 2 questions (2.5%)
- General Mental Ability: 1 questions (1.3%)
- Data Interpretation: 1 questions (1.3%)