70th BPSC Prelims 2024
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 12 solved 70th BPSC Prelims 2024 Indian Polity questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
What is the position of representation of Anglo-Indian Community in Lok Sabha?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 331 originally allowed the President to nominate up to 2 Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha if the community was inadequately represented.
The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 (effective January 25, 2020) abolished this provision entirely, ending the nominated representation of the Anglo-Indian community in both Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
Who decides the disqualification of members of the State Legislative Assembly for matters other than those in the tenth schedule of the Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 192 empowers the Governor to decide disqualification of State Legislative Assembly members for reasons other than defection (Tenth Schedule).
Grounds under Article 191 include: holding an office of profit, being of unsound mind, undischarged insolvency, not being a citizen of India, or violating other membership qualifications. The Governor must obtain and act on the Election Commission's opinion.
Defection cases under the Tenth Schedule are decided by the Speaker, not the Governor.
By which time Governor has to return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislature for reconsideration?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 200 of the Constitution grants the Governor four options for an ordinary bill: give assent, withhold assent, return for reconsideration (except Money Bills), or reserve for the President.
The Constitution does not specify any time limit within which the Governor must return a bill for reconsideration, allowing indefinite discretion in this matter.
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Size of Council of Ministers has been restricted to 15 percent of membership of Lok Sabha by which Constitutional Amendment?
Detailed Explanation:
91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 restricts the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the total membership of the Lok Sabha (at Centre) and State Legislative Assemblies (at State level).
It inserted Article 75(1A) for the Centre and Article 164(1A) for States, also strengthened the anti-defection law by disqualifying defectors from holding ministerial posts.
Indian National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on which date?
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian National Flag was formally adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22 July 1947, just weeks before independence.
The flag, designed by Pingali Venkayya, features three horizontal stripes—saffron (courage), white with Ashoka Chakra (peace and truth), and green (fertility)—with the 24-spoke navy blue wheel symbolizing progress and righteousness.
Among the following, who has been Speaker of Lok Sabha prior to his Election as President of India?
Detailed Explanation:
Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy is the only person in Indian history to serve as Lok Sabha Speaker before being elected President of India.
He served as Speaker twice: first during the Fourth Lok Sabha (1967-69) and again during the Sixth Lok Sabha (1977), before becoming 6th President of India (1977-82).
Giani Zail Singh was 7th President (1982-87) but never Speaker; V. V. Giri was 3rd President (1969-74) but never Speaker; A. P. J. Abdul Kalam was 11th President (2002-07) but never Speaker.
What is the object of "cut motion" in Parliament?
Detailed Explanation:
A cut motion is a parliamentary device used by Members of Parliament to propose a reduction in the amount of a demand for grant presented in the budget.
It allows MPs to express disapproval of specific expenditure items, highlight wasteful spending, or demand policy changes by moving to reduce the budgetary allocation for a particular ministry or scheme.
Which Article of the Constitution restricts a Member of Parliament to hold the office of profit?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 102(1)(a) disqualifies a Member of Parliament from holding any office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government, unless exempted by law.
This provision prevents conflict of interest and ensures legislative independence by restricting MPs from positions offering financial benefits or executive influence.
Which two words have been incorporated in the Preamble by 42nd Amendment?
Detailed Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added two words to the Preamble: Socialist and Secular.
Before this amendment, the Preamble read "Sovereign Democratic Republic"; after the amendment it became "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic". Socialist signifies commitment to economic equality and welfare state principles, while Secular means the state has no official religion and treats all religions equally.
Answer: Option 4 – Secular and socialist
What is the eligibility age, after the changes made in March 2024, for senior citizens to vote by postal ballot?
Detailed Explanation:
The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 were amended in March 2024 to raise the minimum age for senior citizens eligible to vote by postal ballot from 80 years to 85 years.
The change was made after a review showed that 97–98% of senior citizens above 80 years preferred to vote in person, so the age limit was raised to better target those who actually need the postal facility.
Under Article "243J" which of the following can make provisions to the maintenance of accounts by Panchayats?
Detailed Explanation:
Article 243J empowers the State Legislature to make laws regarding the maintenance of accounts by Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts.
Parliament does not have authority under this article as it falls under Part IX (Panchayati Raj), which is a state subject. The District Collector is an executive officer with no legislative power, and the State Finance Commission only reviews financial positions and recommends grants, not account maintenance rules.
Which Amendment to the Constitution abolished the two seats that were reserved for the Anglo-Indian community?
Detailed Explanation:
The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 abolished the reservation of two seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
Originally provided under Articles 331 and 333, this nomination provision came into effect from 25 January 2020, ending a post-independence legacy that allowed Presidential and Gubernatorial nominations of Anglo-Indians to legislatures.
70th BPSC Prelims 2024 - Indian Polity Chapter-wise Distribution
Amendment of the Constitution
3 Qs (25%)Parliament
3 Qs (25%)Elections and Electoral System
2 Qs (16.7%)Local Government
1 Qs (8.3%)Union Executive
1 Qs (8.3%)Salient Features of the Constitution
1 Qs (8.3%)State Government
1 Qs (8.3%)70th BPSC Prelims 2024 - Indian Polity Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Polity questions were asked in 70th BPSC Prelims 2024?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Polity in 70th BPSC Prelims 2024?
- Amendment of the Constitution: 3 questions (25%)
- Parliament: 3 questions (25%)
- Elections and Electoral System: 2 questions (16.7%)
- Local Government: 1 questions (8.3%)
- Union Executive: 1 questions (8.3%)
- Salient Features of the Constitution: 1 questions (8.3%)
- State Government: 1 questions (8.3%)