68th BPSC Prelims 2023
Indian Polity Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Explore 12 solved 68th BPSC Prelims 2023 Indian Polity questions with detailed step-by-step bilingual solutions, option analysis, and answer keys.
Which committee suggested the enactment of the Competition Act, 2002?
Detailed Explanation:
The S. V. S. Raghavan Committee (1999) recommended the enactment of a new competition law to replace the outdated MRTP Act, 1969.
Based on this recommendation, the Competition Act, 2002 was enacted, establishing the Competition Commission of India (CCI) to regulate anti-competitive practices and promote fair competition in markets.
The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be how many years according to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
Detailed Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX into the Constitution, providing constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Article 243F specifies the disqualifications for membership of Panchayats, stating that a person shall not be less than 21 years of age to be chosen to fill a seat in a Panchayat.
This is different from the general voting age of 18 years for elections, which is the minimum age for contesting elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies (25 years for Lok Sabha).
Which of the following is concerned with the Supreme Court of India?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Collegium system is used by the Supreme Court of India for appointing and transferring judges to higher judiciary through a collegium of senior judges.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Appellate jurisdiction under Articles 132-136 allows the Supreme Court to hear appeals against decisions of High Courts and tribunals.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Original jurisdiction under Article 131 empowers the Supreme Court to hear disputes directly between the Union and States or between States.
Since statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct, the answer is Option 4 (More than one of the above).
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The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 80(1)(a) provides for 12 members to be nominated by the President from persons with special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social service.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 80(4) mandates that the remaining members (up to 238 representatives) are indirectly elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: No direct election by citizens exists for Rajya Sabha; it is purely an indirectly elected Upper House.
Answer: Since statements 1 and 3 are correct, the answer is Option 4 (More than one of the above).
Consider the following statements:
In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralization of
- decision-making powers
- system as a whole
- judicial powers
- administrative powers
Which of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 mandates decentralization of decision-making powers to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for local self-governance.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Amendment requires decentralization of the system as a whole, transferring functions, funds, and functionaries to PRIs under the three-tier structure.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Judicial powers are not decentralized to PRIs; the judiciary remains under the domain of the State and Union as per the Constitution.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: Administrative powers related to the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule are to be decentralized to PRIs for local administration.
The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to
Detailed Explanation:
Article 164(2) of the Constitution states that the Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.
This is a core principle of Parliamentary democracy – the Council remains in office only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Legislative Assembly, which can pass a no-confidence motion to remove it.
What was the duration in the making of the Indian Constitution?
Detailed Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on 9 December 1946 and the Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.
The total duration was 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days, during which the Assembly met for 166 days spread over 11 sessions to draft the world's longest written constitution under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
The phrase 'equality before law' used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of
Detailed Explanation:
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws.
'Equality before law' is a negative concept borrowed from the British Constitution, ensuring no special privileges and that all are equal before ordinary courts.
'Equal protection of laws' is a positive concept borrowed from the US Constitution (14th Amendment), allowing the State to make reasonable classifications to ensure substantive equality.
Which one of the following was established as the first programme of community development?
Detailed Explanation:
National Extension Service (NES) was established in 1953 as India's first programme of community development on a permanent basis.
Cooperation Movement began in 1904 (Cooperative Credit Societies Act) but was not a community development programme.
Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was launched in 1978-80, much later than NES.
NES aimed at providing institutional framework for rural development through multipurpose village-level workers and block-level administration.
At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate a Panchayati Raj structure?
Detailed Explanation:
Panchayat Samiti operates at the block level (also called Taluka or Mandal level) in the three-tier Panchayati Raj system.
The three-tier structure comprises: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level), as per the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at the district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (District Forum) has jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed ₹50 lakhs (increased from ₹20 lakhs under the 1986 Act).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The State Government is empowered to establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems necessary, as per Section 28 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The District Forum consists of a President and not less than two members, of whom one shall be a woman, as mandated under Section 29(2) of the Act.
Since all three statements are correct, the answer is "None of the above" (Option 5).
Arrange the following words in logical and meaningful order:
- Vice President
- President
- Speaker
- Prime Minister
- Members of the Parliament
Detailed Explanation:
The question asks for a logical hierarchy in the Indian political system based on constitutional importance and protocol order.
President (2) – The Head of State and First Citizen of India, highest constitutional authority.
Vice President (1) – The Second highest constitutional position, acts as ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Prime Minister (4) – The Head of Government, leader of the executive and most powerful functionary in practice.
Speaker (3) – The presiding officer of Lok Sabha, represents the House collectively.
Members of Parliament (5) – The elected representatives who form the Parliament, lowest in this hierarchy.
The correct logical order following constitutional protocol and rank is: 2, 1, 4, 3, 5.
68th BPSC Prelims 2023 - Indian Polity Chapter-wise Distribution
Local Government
4 Qs (33.3%)Making of the Indian Constitution
1 Qs (8.3%)State Government
1 Qs (8.3%)Parliament
1 Qs (8.3%)Supreme Court
1 Qs (8.3%)Non-Constitutional Bodies
1 Qs (8.3%)Union Executive
1 Qs (8.3%)Constitutional and Political Developments
1 Qs (8.3%)Fundamental Rights
1 Qs (8.3%)68th BPSC Prelims 2023 - Indian Polity Questions FAQs
Q1 How many Indian Polity questions were asked in 68th BPSC Prelims 2023?
Q2 What is the chapter-wise question distribution for Indian Polity in 68th BPSC Prelims 2023?
- Local Government: 4 questions (33.3%)
- Making of the Indian Constitution: 1 questions (8.3%)
- State Government: 1 questions (8.3%)
- Parliament: 1 questions (8.3%)
- Supreme Court: 1 questions (8.3%)
- Non-Constitutional Bodies: 1 questions (8.3%)
- Union Executive: 1 questions (8.3%)
- Constitutional and Political Developments: 1 questions (8.3%)
- Fundamental Rights: 1 questions (8.3%)