UPSC CSE Prelims
Union Executive Previous Year Questions (PYQs)
Showing solved Previous Year Questions for Chapter: Union Executive
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With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement I is Correct: An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Therefore, it can amend, repeal, or modify any Central Act, subject to constitutional limits.
❌ Statement II is Incorrect: An Ordinance cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights. Article 13(2) prohibits the State from making any law that violates Fundamental Rights.
✅ Statement III is Correct: An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect (back date), just like a law passed by Parliament.
Therefore, Statements I and III are correct.
📝 Short Notes: Ordinance
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Provision | Article 123 (President), Article 213 (Governor) |
| When Issued | When Legislature is not in session |
| Force | Same as an Act of Legislature |
| Approval | Must be approved within 6 weeks of reassembly |
| Limitation | Cannot violate Fundamental Rights |
| Retrospective Effect | Allowed |
Key Fact:
The Supreme Court has held that Ordinance-making power is a legislative power, but it is subject to judicial review.
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
The President's pardoning power (Article 72) is not absolute. The Supreme Court can review its exercise in limited situations such as mala fide intent, arbitrariness, or consideration of irrelevant facts.
However, the President cannot exercise this power independently. Under Article 74, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
Why the statements are correct/incorrect:
| Statement | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| I | ✅ Correct | Pardoning power is subject to limited judicial review. |
| II | ❌ Incorrect | President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers. |
📝 Short Notes: Pardoning Power of the President
| Point | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Provision | Article 72 |
| Authority | President of India |
| Acts On | Aid and advice of Council of Ministers |
| Judicial Review | Allowed in limited cases |
| Types of Clemency | Pardon, Reprieve, Respite, Remission, Commutation |
Key Fact:
The President can grant pardon in cases involving court-martial, Union laws, and death sentences.
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
- The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
- Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
- The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
- The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh
How many of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 1 — Only one
Out of the four statements regarding the election of the President of India, only Statement 4 is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because nominated members are not part of the electoral college. Statement 2 is incorrect because a higher number of assembly seats actually reduces the value of each MLA's vote (as it is in the denominator). Statement 3 is incorrect because Kerala MLAs have a higher vote value (152) than Madhya Pradesh MLAs (131).
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The electoral college for Presidential election consists only of elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies; nominated members are not eligible to vote.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The value of an MLA's vote = (Population of State ÷ Number of elected MLAs) ÷ 1000. A higher number of elective seats in the denominator actually decreases the vote value, not increases it.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Based on 1971 Census, the vote value of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is 131, while that of Kerala is 152. Therefore, Kerala MLAs have higher vote value than Madhya Pradesh MLAs.
✅ Statement 4 – Correct: The vote value of each MLA of Puducherry (16) is indeed higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh (8) because Puducherry has a greater ratio of population to elected seats.
📝 Short Notes: Presidential Election - Electoral College
- Composition of Electoral College (Article 54): Elected members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies (including NCT of Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated members and members of Legislative Councils are excluded.
- Value of MLA's Vote: Formula = (Total Population of State as per 1971 Census ÷ Total number of elected MLAs) ÷ 1000
- Value of MP's Vote: Formula = (Total value of votes of all MLAs of all States ÷ Total number of elected MPs in both Houses)
- Nature of Election: Indirect election through proportional representation by means of single transferable vote
- Key Exclusions: Nominated MPs and MLAs, MLCs, and currently J&K Union Territory
| State/UT | Vote Value per MLA (Examples) |
|---|---|
| Uttar Pradesh | 208 (Highest) |
| Kerala | 152 |
| Madhya Pradesh | 131 |
| Puducherry | 16 |
| Arunachal Pradesh | 8 |
| Sikkim | 7 (Lowest) |
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Consider the following statements:
- If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
- Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
- When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — None
All three statements are incorrect. Statement 1 wrongly suggests that acts done by the President whose election is declared void become invalid—they remain valid. Statement 2 incorrectly claims that dissolution of Legislative Assemblies can postpone Presidential elections—the Supreme Court has ruled otherwise. Statement 3 falsely asserts that the Constitution prescribes time limits for Presidential assent—no such time limit exists.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 71(2) specifically provides that if the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him/her before the date of such declaration are not invalidated and continue to remain in force.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Supreme Court in 1974 held that the dissolution of a state legislative assembly would not be a ground for preventing the holding of the Presidential election on the expiry of the President's term, nor can it be grounds for postponement until state assembly elections are held.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Constitution of India does not prescribe any time limit within which the President has to decide concerning a bill presented for his/her assent. The President can keep bills pending indefinitely (pocket veto).
📝 Short Notes: Presidential Powers and Elections
| Aspect | Constitutional Provision |
|---|---|
| Validity of Presidential Acts | Article 71(2) - Acts performed before election being declared void remain valid |
| Presidential Election Timeline | Cannot be postponed due to dissolved state assemblies (SC 1974 ruling) |
| Presidential Assent | No time limit prescribed; President can exercise pocket veto |
| Presidential Assent Options | 1. Give assent to the Bill 2. Withhold assent to the Bill 3. Return the Bill (except Money Bill) for reconsideration 4. Keep pending indefinitely (pocket veto) |
| Exception | When a Bill is returned and passed again by Parliament, President must give assent |
Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
- The total number of ministers in the Union Government/including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 only
This question tests knowledge about the classification of ministers and the constitutional limits on the size of the Council of Ministers.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The Constitution of India does not classify ministers into four ranks. The classification into Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister is based on parliamentary convention and practice, not constitutional provisions. The Constitution only mentions 'Ministers' and 'Prime Minister' without prescribing specific ranks.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 inserted Article 75(1A) which states that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
📝 Short Notes: Council of Ministers
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Constitutional Basis | Articles 74 and 75 deal with the Council of Ministers |
| Classification (Convention) | Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State with Independent Charge, Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers (not constitutional) |
| Size Limit | Not more than 15% of Lok Sabha strength (91st Amendment, 2003) |
| Collective Responsibility | Council of Ministers collectively responsible to Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)) |
| Appointment | Ministers appointed by President on advice of Prime Minister (Article 75(1)) |
| Disqualification | A disqualified MP cannot be appointed as minister (91st Amendment) |
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
- N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
- In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 2 — 2 Only
This question tests knowledge about administrative reform recommendations and the establishment of the Department of Personnel. Statement 1 incorrectly attributes a recommendation to the N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee that was actually made by the first Administrative Reforms Commission, while Statement 2 correctly describes the establishment of the Department of Personnel in 1970 under the Prime Minister's charge.
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The recommendation to designate a minister and secretary solely for administrative reform was made by the first Administrative Reforms Commission (1966), not the N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee (1949), which focused on reorganization of Central Government machinery and establishment of the O&M Division.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Department of Personnel was indeed established in 1970 based on the recommendations of the first Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) and was placed under the Cabinet Secretariat, which functions under the Prime Minister's direct charge; it was later reorganized into the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions in 1985.
📝 Short Notes: Administrative Reforms and Department of Personnel
| Committee/Commission | Year | Key Recommendations/Focus |
|---|---|---|
| N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee | 1949 | Reorganization of Central Government machinery; Grouping of ministries; Establishment of Organisation and Methods (O&M) Division |
| First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) | 1966 | Designation of minister and secretary for administrative reforms; Establishment of Department of Personnel (implemented in 1970) |
| Department of Personnel | 1970 | Established under Cabinet Secretariat; Under Prime Minister's charge |
| Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions | 1985 | Reorganized from Department of Personnel; Continues under Prime Minister's charge |
In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 4 — An agency for the implementation of public policy
Bureaucracy in India refers to the permanent civil service machinery that executes government policies, laws, and programs on a day-to-day basis. While political executives formulate policies, the bureaucracy translates these policies into action through administrative mechanisms. It serves as the implementing arm of the government, ensuring continuity and stability in administration regardless of changes in political leadership.
Why other options are incorrect:
• Option 1: Widening parliamentary democracy is primarily the role of political institutions, electoral reforms, and civil society—not bureaucracy.
• Option 2: Strengthening federalism involves constitutional provisions and inter-governmental relations, not the characteristic function of bureaucracy.
• Option 3: While bureaucracy may indirectly contribute to stability and growth, its defining characteristic is policy implementation, not facilitation of political stability.
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following statements given above is/are Correct?
Detailed Explanation:
Answer: Option 3 — 1 only
The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State because it is calculated based on the population of the state divided by the number of elected MLAs in that state. However, all MPs (both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) have equal voting value in Presidential elections, making Statement 2 incorrect.
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The value of an MLA's vote is calculated as (Population of State ÷ Number of MLAs ÷ 1000), which varies across states based on population and assembly strength.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: All MPs have equal voting value in Presidential elections; the value is the same for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members.
📝 Short Notes: Election of the President of India
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Method of Election | Indirect election through Electoral College consisting of elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies (Article 54) |
| Value of MLA's Vote | Formula: (Population of State ÷ Total number of elected MLAs ÷ 1000) Varies from state to state based on population and assembly strength |
| Value of MP's Vote | Formula: (Total value of votes of all MLAs ÷ Total number of elected MPs) Same for both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha members |
| System of Voting | Single transferable vote system with proportional representation (Article 55) |
| Electoral College | Only elected members participate; nominated members of Parliament and State Assemblies cannot vote |
Consider the following statements:
- The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: The executive power of the Union is vested in the President of India under Article 53, not in the Prime Minister. The President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: There is no constitutional position called the Civil Services Board at the Union level, and the Prime Minister is not its ex officio Chairman. The Cabinet Secretary is the administrative head of the civil services.
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
- Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
- Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: The Cabinet Secretariat prepares the agenda for Cabinet meetings and circulates relevant papers to ensure smooth functioning of the Cabinet.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: It provides secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees (like CCEA, CCS, ACC) and coordinates implementation of Cabinet decisions across ministries.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: Allocation of financial resources is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance through the Budget Division, not the Cabinet Secretariat.
Consider the following statements:
- The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
- All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 77(3) empowers the President to make rules for transaction of Government business and allocation among Ministers. These are known as the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961.
❌ Statement 2 – Incorrect: Article 77(1) states all executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers but executive authority is formally vested in the President.
Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
- take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
- be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
- speak in the Lok Sabha
- vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 88 grants the Attorney General the right to take part in proceedings of either House of Parliament.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: The Attorney General can be named a member of any committee of Parliament and participate in its proceedings.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: The Attorney General has the right to speak in Lok Sabha under Article 88.
❌ Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Attorney General has no right to vote in either House as explicitly stated in Article 88.
Consider the following statements:
- The Council of Ministers at the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
- The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
- The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
Detailed Explanation:
❌ Statement 1 – Incorrect: Article 75(3) states the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only, not to the entire Parliament (which includes Rajya Sabha).
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Article 75(2) provides that Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, though they are collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
✅ Statement 3 – Correct: Article 78(a) mandates the Prime Minister shall communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration and proposals for legislation to the President.
In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
- Members of the Cabinet are Members of Parliament.
- Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
- Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Detailed Explanation:
✅ Statement 1 – Correct: Article 75(5) mandates that a Minister must be a member of Parliament within 6 months of appointment, establishing the institutional link between legislature and executive in parliamentary government.
✅ Statement 2 – Correct: Collective responsibility under Article 75(3) ensures the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha; Ministers hold office only till they enjoy confidence of Parliament, resignable on no-confidence motion.
❌ Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Cabinet is headed by the Prime Minister (head of government), not the President (head of state); the President exercises powers on the aid and advice of Council of Ministers under Article 74.
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
Detailed Explanation:
Article 75(5) of the Constitution states that a minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament for six consecutive months ceases to be a minister at the expiration of that period.
Since the Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers, this provision applies—meaning the PM need not be a member at appointment but must become a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha within six months, failing which he/she ceases to hold office.
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